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Exam Code: 920-159
Exam Name: Nortel (Ncss callpilot 2.x/3.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-22

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NO.1 When installing a 40-channel 3.0 system using a 201i server and a Meridian 1 Option 11C
mini switch, how should you set the SCSI ID on the Tandberg SLR5 tape drive
(NTRH9038)?
A. Rotate the dial on the SCIS ID rotary switch unit the arrow points to 3.
B. Use the blade of a screwdriver to press either the plus (+) or minus (? Button the SCSI ID
switch to set the SCIS ID to 5.
C. Use the blade of a screwdriver to set DIP switches as follows.
1=ON, 2=off, 3=Off, 4=Off, 5=Off
D. The SCSI ID for the Tandberg SLR5 tape drive (NTRH9038) is set when you run the
Configuration Wizard after you install the CallPilot system.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .XXXX .com has a CallPilot 3.0 configuration connected to a Meridian 1. the CallPilot
platform connect to the network loops in the IPE shelf through MGate cards. The MGate
cards plug into the Meridian 1 IPE shelf. Which three platform types connect using the
Mgate card? (Choose three.0?
A. 200i
B. 201i
C. 702t
D. 1001ro
E. 1002rp
Answer: A.B.C

NO.3 .Exhibit
Prior to installing a CallPilot 3.0 system, you review, the Configuration Wizard worksheet.
The customer has provided category 5 cable connections to their corporate LAN for the
Switch Ethernet connection, the CallPilot Server Customer LAN (CLAN) Ethernet
connection, and the CallPilot Server Embedded LAN (ELAN) Ethernet connection. The
network address information (shown in the exhibit) for the Switch IP address, the CallPilot
server ELAN IP address, and the CallPilot Server CLAN IP address integrate with the
customer's internal network. What action would you take?
A. Proceed with the installation using the category 5 cable connections, IP addresses and Subnet
mask provided by the customer.
B. Proceed with the installation but do not use the category 5 cable connections provided by the
customer for the Switch Ethernet connection and the CallPilot server ELAN Ethernet
connection. Use a separate category 5 cable that connects directly from the switch to the ELAN
network interface connector on the server.
C. Inform the customer that IP address beginning with 192.168 are private address and if used
the ELAN will not be able to be connected to the internet.
D. Inform the customer that the ELAN must be on a separate IP network isolated from the
CLAN. Recommend that they use a dedicated hub that can either be supplied by Nortel Network
or a third party for the ELAN and recommend different IP addresses for switch and the ELAN
NIC.
Answer: D

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NO.4 .When installing a 40-channel CallPilot 3.0 system using a 201i server and a CS 1000
system, how do you connect the SCSI connection to the server?
A. The SCSI connection to the 201i server is made with the low profiles right-angle SCIS
connector on the SCIS connector on the 201i server faceplate.
B. NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connection to the 201i server is made with the
CD-ROM drive SCSI cable NTRH1408 attached from the SCIS connector on the 201i server
faceplate to the SCSI adapter A0763912 on the CD-ROM drive
C. NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connection to the 201i server is made via the
backplane connector in the Media Gateway or Media Gateway Expansion with the multi I/O
cable (NTRH0912) to the next drive in the SCIS chain.
D. NTRH3502SCSI cable attached to the SCSI connection to the 201i server is madewith the
intermediate SCIS cable NTRH1408 that connect from the SCIS connector on the 201i server
faceplate to the I/O panel connector and the NTRH410 SCSIcable that connect from the I/O
panel connector to the next device in the SCSI chain.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A site has a CallPilot server interworking with a Symposium server. Where are the
applications (announcement service, menus, etc.) stored to support Symposium to CallPilot
integration?
A. in a folder
B. in a mailbox
C. on the C drive
D. by a backup file
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three CallPilot features are supported by Business Communication Manager
(BCM) 3.0? (Choose three.)
A. ability to annotate faxes
B. ability to save voice messages
C. ability to reject passwords (such as 888888)
D. ability to set message sensitivity to urgent or Normal
Answer: A.B.D

NO.7 A site has a CallPilot 3.0 server. Which two administrative functions support the
web-based CallPilot Manager administrative application? (Choose two.)
A. Managing system configuration and backups
B. Creating application with Application Builder
C. Managing mailbox Users, groups, and permissions
D. Managing CallPilot Simple network Maintenance Protocol (SNMP) traps
Answer: A.C

NO.8 When installing a 96-chabbel 3.0 system using a 1003rp server and a CS 1000 system, how
would you install the Nortel Network software feature key adapter?
A. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in its bracket on the
motherboard in the 102rp server.
B. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in the COM1 serial port
connector on the rear of the 1002rp server.
C. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in the COM1 serial port
connector on the rear of the 1002rp server.
D. The Nortel Networks software feature Key adapter is installed in the Parallel port connector
LPT1 on the rear of the 1002rp server.
Answer: D

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NO.9 .When provisioning the Embedded Local Area Network (ELAN) on a CS 1000 system for a
site with a CallPilot 3.0 system with 96 DSO channels, what number should you set the
maximum number of call registers for CSL input (CSQI in LD 17)?
A. 20
B. 96
C. 192
D. 255
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are installing a CallPilot 3.0 system with 32 Voice channels, 8 Fax channels, and 4
ASR (automated speech recognition) Cannels using a CallPilot 702t server and a Meridian
1 IP Enable (IE) Option 61C switch. How many NTRB18CA MGate cards must be
installed in the switch to support this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-470
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office for Comm Svr 1000 Rls5.x Plan and Eng)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-22

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NO.1 A company is planning to deploy a new Communication Server (CS) 1000E with Nortel Converged
Office. They want to provide media security (SRTP) to encrypt the IP media path to and from all of the
DSP channels.
Which EC Report shows the correct components?
A.-@b$

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Exam Code: 920-221
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Convered Campus ERS Installation and Configuration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-22

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NO.1 You are using the Nortel Network Command Line Interface (NNCLI) to modify a VLAN or a port. Which
NNCLI command mode are you using?
A.Global Configuration Mode
B.Interface Configuration Mode
C.Privileged EXEC Mode
D.Router Configuration Mode
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Power over Ethernet (PoE)? (Choose two.)
A.PoE requires a significant increase in power capacity.
B.PoE enables cooling systems and load-sharing power supplies.
C.PoE provides increased power, resiliency, and redundancy at low cost.
D.PoE is used to power IP telephones, Web cameras, and access points.
Answer:A D

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NO.3 A customer would like to configure an IP address for an existing VLAN on an Ethernet Routing Switch
5510. You use the following Command Line Interface (CLI) command sequence: From the initial CLI
prompt, enter privilege mode, enter config mode, enter config-if mode for the VLAN interface. Enter the
command, "ip address". What information do you enter next?
A.Enter the appropriate IP address of the backup CPU.
B.Enter the appropriate IP address and subnet mask in dotted decimal notation.
C.Enter the appropriate IP address for the out-of-band management port.
D.Enter the appropriate IP address for the in-band management port.
Answer:B

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NO.4 If you do not know the IP address of an Ethernet Routing Switch 5510, how can you upload code?
A.Use Telnet.
B.Use Console Access.
C.Use the Web browser.
D.Use the Java Device Manager.
Answer:B

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NO.5 You can use the User Interface (UI) button on the Ethernet Routing Switch 5500 to temporarily reset a
switch to the default IP address. Which two statements are true about the default IP address set via the UI
button? (Choose two.)
A.The default IP address overrides the IP address currently in use by the switch stack.
B.The default IP address overwrites the onfigured IP address settings that are set via console, Command
Line Interface (CLI), or Web.
C.The default IP address changes if there is a change in the state of the switch, such as if the switch joins
or leaves a stack.
D.The default IP address is saved in NVRAM across resets of the switch/stack.
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: 922-109
Exam Name: Nortel (Communications Server 1000 Rls.6.0 BARS/NARS)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-15

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NO.1 Click on the Exhibit button. Consider a customer's dialing plan and programming shown in the exhibit.
Assuming all required Route List Indexes have been programmed, why will the station user's dialed call of

NO.2 Click on the Exhibit buttons. Given the customer's programmed database shown in the exhibits and
where AC1 = 9, which RLI will the call complete when a station user dials 9-814-666-3434?
A.RLI 2
B.RLI 3
C.RLI 4
D.RLI 9
E.call will not complete as dialed
Answer:E

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NO.3 Click on the Exhibit button. Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR
programming would allow a user at to be able to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other
1-900 based number?
A.Table 1
B.Table 2
C.Table 3
D.Table 4
Answer:A

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NO.4 With Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0, Zone Based Dialing is supported for both public and private
dial and numbering plans for on-net calls. Which statements best describe Zone Based Dialing? (Choose
two.)
A.For outgoing trunk calls, CLID is converted to E.164 format when DIALPLAN is configured as PUB, for
PRV type - CLID remains as is.
B.On-net Calls are routed using each CS 1000 site dial plan database and are routed to the remote
system to process.
C.Private and Public (E.164) dial plans and features are not retained. Zone Based Dialing uses the
Flexible Dial Plan information to route network-wide.
D.A new Zone type, Numbering Zones, provides a user interface to configure the parameters for:
Zone-based Parameters, Flexible Dial Plan, and Direct Inward Dial number.
Answer:A D

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NO.5 Click on the Exhibit button. A customer's dialing requirements, listed below, require that all station users
assigned an NCOS of 3 and Class of Service of Conditionally Toll Denied (CTD) be able to place toll calls
from the United States to Australia. Australia Country Code: 61 NCOS of 3 has an FRL of 3 Expensive
Routers are not being used With reference to the exhibit, which table will allow all station users to be able
to place these toll calls?
A.Provisioning Table A
B.Provisioning Table B
C.Provisioning Table C
D.Provisioning Table D
Answer:B

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NO.6 544-3333 not complete?
A.AC1 Access Code was not dialed
B.NXX 544 is not provisioned in the customer's database
C.3333 is Denied under the SDRR programming
D.AC2 Access Code was not dialed
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 920-803
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel technology standards and protocol for ip telephony solutions)
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Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-13

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NO.1 To achieve the QoS necessary to deliver voice between two points on a Frame Relay network, which
two items are required to guarantee that voice quality is maintained? (Choose two.) Assume that a
Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC) is available to address converged voice and data.
A. a Variable Bit Rate (VBR) service type
B. a WAN access device that shapes traffic
C. a WAN access device that does NOT fragment voice IP packets
D. a WAN access device that can manage First-In, First-Out (FIFO) queuing
E. a Committed Information Rate (CIR) large enough to address the total peak voice traffic plus a portion
allocated for Best-Effort (BE) data
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Which CODEC delivers the greatest compression?
A. B. 711
C. D. 723.1
E. F. 726
G. H. 729
I. J. 729A
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two CODECs have the least delay (processing or algorithmic)? (Choose two.)
A. B. 711
C. D. 723.1
E. F. 726
G. H. 729
Answer: AE

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NO.4 What are two differences between IP, Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) and Frame Relay (FR)?
(Choose two.)
A. ATM has a fixed cell size, but IP and FR do NOT.
B. FR has built in mechanisms within the protocol for QoS.
C. ATM is connectionless, but IP and FR are connection oriented.
D. IP is a Layer 3 protocol, but ATM and FR are Layer 2 protocols.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 A video conference is in progress between two networked locations using gigabit Ethernet. The video
conferencing application is using User Datagram Protocol (UDP) to transport the video and audio data.
Why should UDP be used instead of Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
A. TCP CANNOT handle streaming data applications.
B. UDP is better than TCP at seamlessly synchronizing voice and video together.
C. UDP serves as an efficient transport for handling real-time application traffic.
D. UDP uses less bandwidth than TCP in a WAN, but more bandwidth than TCP in a LAN.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The basic attributes of Real-Time Protocol (RTP) provide for support of applications like voice and
video. Which three attributes of RTP support real-time applications? (Choose three.)
A. Timestamping
B. Packet sequencing
C. Header compression
D. Payload identification
E. Packet retransmission
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 To implement VoIP on a customer's IP network, which transport protocol should you use to best meet
the real-time requirement for VoIP, and why?
A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP); It ignores lost packets.
B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP); It retransmits lost packets.
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP); The amount of delay time is bounded.
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP); The amount of delay time is bounded.
Answer: A

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NO.8 How does Real-Time Control Protocol (RTCP), the control protocol of Real-Time Protocol (RTP), assist
RTP in handling packetized voice in an IP telephony environment?
A. Controls the RTP data flows.
B. Identifies sources and provides QoS feedback.
C. Interoperates with Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).
D. Controls the network bandwidth used by RTP data flows.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-344
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 and BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-13

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NO.1 Which statement should be considered when you allocate DS30 channel Block resources using a 3/5
channel split configuration?
A. This configuration is achieved by assigning bus two to the voice data sector.
B. This configuration allocates three DS30 channel blocks to Media Bay Modules.
C. This configuration may be configured during system startup using the Startup Profile.
D. This configuration may be used to accommodate increased IP telephony or VoIP trunk requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing
adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the
availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a
suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.
B. The jitter buffer must be configured.
C. The Transmit threshold must be set.
D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.
E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.
Answer:AC

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NO.3 BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority
fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the
highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of
service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?
A. PKI
B. RC4
C. AES
D. PPTP
Answer: C

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NO.5 A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is
configured for IPSec
Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which
functionality does this describe?
A. split routing
B. dual routing
C. split tunneling
D. dual tunneling
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You
explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are
concerned about it being able to
handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to
a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer's new system will be configured with 55 IP telephones, an IVR system and a voicemail. This
system will also use over 30 analog and digital telephones. What should the DS30 split be for this
customer?
A. A 2/5 split
B. A 2/6 split
C. A 3/5 split
D. A 3/6 split
Answer: C

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NO.8 In planning a network configuration for a customer there are tools available to help you with your plan.
Which tool should you use to determine the specific requirements for the system design, including pricing
information?
A. BCM Monitor
B. AppManager
C. Startup Profile
D. Enterprise Configurator
Answer: D

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NO.9 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on their
BCM 400
system. Which two factors should be considered when making this determination? (Choose two.)
A. The range is 0 to 16 ports.
B. The range is 0 to 32 ports.
C. Each voicemail port requires one media channel resource.
D. Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 A client has a BCM 400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are concerned
about overloading the BCM 400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the maximum number of
simultaneous tunnels?
A. 12 tunnels
B. 16 tunnels
C. 24 tunnels
D. 30 tunnels
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 922-072
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls 4.0 BCM 450 Rls. 1.0 Config)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-13

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NO.1 What is the function of the BCM450 chassis interface board (CIB)?
A.The CIB connects the base function tray to the chassis wiring.
B.The CIB increases IP trunk capacity.
C.The CIB connects the media services card to the media bay modules.
D.The CIB in the BCM450 can be used in a BCM400 main unit.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of IP trunks you can have on a BCM450 with a capacity expansion card?
A.48
B.80
C.130
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement about the BCM450 capacity expansion card (CEC) is true?
A.A BCM450 with a CEC can support a maximum of 300 trunks.
B.You can remove the CEC if the customer capacity needs drop.
C.A BCM450 with a CEC can support a maximum of 130 stations.
D.The CEC is a standard card that comes installed with every BCM450.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer with a BCM400 has a requirement of one T1, six PSTN analog lines and 12 digital
telephones.
What are the minimum Media Bay Module (MBM) requirements?
A.one DTM and one G8X16B.one BRIM and one GASM8
C.one GATM8 and one G4X16
D.one GATM4 and one DSM16+
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Media Bay Module (MBM) can be combined with the G4x16 on the same DS30 bus on a
BCM200/400 system?
A.DTM
B.GATM4
C.GASM8
D.BRI S/T
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 922-101
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Linux Platform Architecture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 32 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-13

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NO.1 A customer is deploying a Communication Server (CS) Rls. 6.0 system. They plan to have a Dell R300
COTS configured as the Primary Security Server and a CPPM configured as a Backup Security Server.
Which statements regarding the roles of the Primary and Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must have a Backup Security Server for the CS 1000 network.
B. The Backup Security Server is automatically promoted to Primary Security Server.
C. The Primary Security Server cannot be demoted to a member server.
D. The Backup Security Server automatically handles authentication requests when the Primary is down.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 You have installed the Linux Base onto a Commercial Off the Shelf (COTS) server that will be
configured as a Member Server. You are ready to perform the Security Configuration. All LAN connections
are in place and functioning normally.
After connecting through a browser, what is your next step to perform the Security Configuration of this
COTS Member server?
A. Enter the IP address of the Certificate Authority in the address bar of the browser.
B. Enter the IP address of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
C. Enter the FQDN of the COTS Member server in the address bar of the browser.
D. Enter the FQDN of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is deploying a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 High Availability system and would like
to know what options for Signaling Server functionality exist.
Which options can the customer deploy? (Choose two.)
A. CPPM VxWorks-based Signaling Server
B. CPPM Linux-based Signaling Server
C. COTS VxWorks-based Signaling Server
D. COTS Linux-based Signaling Server
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 920-345
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM 50/450 Rls.5.0 Installation & Initial Configuration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-17

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NO.1 Your customer does not want callers to be automatically disconnected by Auto Attendant How can this
be prevented?
A. Set Return to Auto Attendant in General Properties
B. Set Auto Attendant to forward the caller to IVR if the caller does not hang up after completing the Auto
Attendant action
C. Activate the menu repeat key
D. Activate the Auto Attendant Loop
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is correct for initializing CallPilot Mailboxes?
A. All mailboxes are automatically initialized when they are created
B. If more subscriber mailboxes are needed than are available by default on the system, the administrator
must create then initialize them
C. Mailbox owners initialize their own mailboxes
D. The administrator can bulk initialize mailboxes by subscriber group
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are installing a customer-supplied external non-trunk port paging system to a BCM450. It will
provide paging over external loudspeakers What connections on the BCM450 will you be using?
A. page output and ATA2
B. page output and auxiliary power outlet
C. speaker and page output
D. page output and page relay output
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which part of the Element Manager panel do you use to rename a folder or network element?
A. Information panel
B. Network element navigation panel
C. Tools
D. File/rename
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which is true of customizing a startup profile for your Business Communications Manager (BCM)
system?
A. The startup profile retrieves the system ID automatically
B. You cannot copy and paste data between cells in the Startup Profile
C. If you need to change anything after loading parameters, you can edit the startup profile SPS file
D. You cannot load akeycode using the startup profile
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-316
Exam Name: Nortel (SCCS/Express/TAPI/Web Client/Agent)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-17

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NO.1 An enterprise wants to add desktop functionality that is flexible and able to respond to the
different needs of callers based on the skill set the calls is routed into. This mid-sized
organization of 100 agents has the expectation to grow to 150 over the next two years, but
will only accept a low-cost solution. What contact center product provides this flexibility?
A. Symposium Agent with the ability to present the correct screen to the agent based on business
rules
B. Symposium Web Center Portal with the ability to present e-mail, chat, an/or collaboration
screens based on customer requirement
C. Symposium Agent Greeting with its ability, based on skill-set, to customize information for
call presentation
D. Symposium TAPI SP with the ability, based on skillset, to route caller information with the
call delivery at the phoneset
Answer: A

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NO.2 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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NO.4 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.5 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Estimated wait time, position in queue, message option, massage recording and
announcements are all functionality of what type of port?
A. MIRAN port
B. CallPiLot ports
C. Meridian Mail ports
D. Voice Services Card ports
Answer: C

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NO.7 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are true for using graphical real-time displays with SECC 3.0?
A. The maximum number of GRTDs is ten
B. GRTD must run on a stand-alone PC
C. SECC 3.0 is backward compatible with all versions of GRTD
D. Each GRTD that runs on a client PC uses one of the Supervisor/Realtime sessiosn of the
SECC
Answer: AD

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NO.9 An SECC contact center with 10 Supervisor clients logged in and using the real time
displays would be using how many of the 75 simultaneous real time sessions?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the recommended CPU specification for symposium Agent server in stand-alone
versus co-resident mode with TAPI for 100 agents, assuring Windows NT service pak5?
A. SA will only run on a Windows 2000 platform and so cannot be sized in this scenario
B. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand-alone or co-resident mode on a Pentium II
100 Mhz CPU clock speed
C. A Pentium II 400 Mhz CPU clock speed server can only support 100 Active Agents in a
stand-alone mode Symposium Agent server
D. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand alone or co-resident mode but requires a
Pentium III 600 Mhz CPU clock speed
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-172
Exam Name: Nortel (NCSS-Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Ris.6.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-25

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NO.1 You are upgrading to Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Rls. 6.0. TAPI 3.0 is currently running. To
what version of TAPI will you have to upgrade?
A. TAPI 4.1
B. TAPI 4.0
C. TAPI 3.1
D. an upgrade in not needed
Answer: C

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NO.2 After you have restored the Symposium TAPI Database. What is the order in which the following
services need to be started?
A. NCCT Data Access Layer Service, NCCT TAPI Connector, NCCT Server Service Telephony Service,
ACDProxy Service
B. NCCT Data Access Layer Service, NCCT TAPI Connector, ACDProxy Service, Telephony
Service,NCCT Server Service
C. Telephony Service, ACDProxy Service, NCCT Data Access Layer Service, NCCT TAPI Connector,
NCCT Server Service.
D. NCCT Server Service, Telephony Service, ACDProxy Service, NCCT Data Access Layer Service,
NCCT TAPI Connector.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You must configure the Bindings order of the network interface cards using Network Connections from
the Control Panel or My Network Places Properties. What order do the NIC have to be in?
A. The order does not matter.
B. ELAN Subnet first then the Nortel Server Subnet (CLAN) second
C. Nortel Server Subnet (CLAN) first then the ELAN Subnet second
D. Depends on the connection rate of each: the higher rate is listed first.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you install the Communication Control Toolkit server, you must ensure that you have enough
space allocated for the CCT database. What is the minimum and maximum directory size on the default
drive needed to install the NCCT database?
A. minimum of 1 GBytes and maximum size of 2.0 GBytes
B. minimum of 150 MBytes and maximum size of 1.0 GBytes
C. minimum of 68.1 MBytes and maximum size of 2.0 GBytes
D. minimum of 50.7 MBytes and maximum size of 2.1 GBytes
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are upgrading to Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Rls. 6.0. You have a Communications
Server 1000/Meridian 1 with Symposium Call Center with Nortel IVR. Which two of the following Service
Provider Software is installed? (Choose two.)
A. TAPI 3.0
B. TAPI 3.1
C. IPML 2.1
D. IPML 4.0
Answer: BC

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NO.6 The Embedded Local Area Network (ELAN Subnet) is a dedicated Ethernet TCP/IP Local Area
Network (LAN). The Customer Local Area Network (Nortel Server Subnet/CLAN) is the LAN to which
corporate services and resources connect. Which is not a rule for configuring the ELAN Subnet and
Nortel Server Subnet (CLAN)?
A. Configure the ELAN Subnet in the same subnet as the ELNK.
B. Configure the ELAN Subnet in a separate subnet from the Nortel Server Subnet.
C. The ELAN Subnet MAC address must be added before the Nortel Server Subnet MAC address.
D. Configure the ELAN Subnet and Nortel Server Subnet network as either completely separate or
integrated using a router.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have been instructed to restore the current NCCT database schema. What is the file that you need
to use to restore the current database schema?
A. EmptyDB.zip
B. NCCT_Empty.zip
C. NCCT_Empty.bak
D. NNCCT_Empty.bak
Answer: D

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NO.8 Of the following Third Party software which two does Nortel approve to be installed on a Nortel
Communication Control Toolkit server? (Choose two.)
A. AntiVirus
B. FTP Server
C. pcAnywhere
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: AC

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NO.9 You have just completed a new install of NCCT Rls. 6.0 and have verified that it is configured properly
and operational. You have just finished backing up the NCCT Database and wish to backup the
Symposium TAPI Database. Which of the following would you do perform the backup?
A. Make copy of the spdb.mdb file located in "C:\\Program Files\\Nortel\\CCT\\TAPI"
B. Make copy of the m1spdb.mdb file located in "C:\\Program Files\\Nortel\\Communication Control
Toolkit\\TAPI"
C. Run NCCT Database Administrator and Select the TAPI Database from the Database Drop Down
Menu then Click Backup.
D. Run NCCT Database Administrator and Browse to the TAPI Database location "C:\\Program
Files\\Nortel\\CCT\\TAPI" then Click Backup.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are doing a backup of the NCCT Database after making substantial changes. You are asked to
name your backup. What should you always include in the name of your backups?
A. The version of TAPI.
B. The version of NCCT.
C. The date the backup was made.
D. The name NCCT backup somewhere in the name.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-183
Exam Name: Nortel (Callpilot RIS.5.0 System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-25

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NO.1 You are installing the Messaging Waiting Indication (MWI) icon for Desktop Messaging and My
CallPilot users. Which statement about the MWI icon feature is true?
A. You can install the MWI software by using only the desktop client installer.
B. You can install the MWI software by using only the standalone desktop player.
C. You can install the MWI software by using the desktop client installer or the standalone desktop player.
D. You cannot download the MWI software from My CallPilot. You must download from Desktop
Messaging.
Answer: C

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NO.2 CallPilot administrators can provide centralized control of desktop options. Which two are configurable
services for Desktop and Web Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. fax printing
B. desktop playback
C. address book location
D. creation of a revert directory number
Answer: BC

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NO.3 After installing CallPilot Desktop Messaging, an end user needs to retrieve the messages from the
CallPilot mailbox. Which protocol enables desktop messaging clients to retrieve messages from the
CallPilot server?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer wants to implement a User Privacy Option for all My CallPilot users. How can the
administrator let the users self-administer the privacy option?
A. In the Mailbox settings of Security Administration, deselect Name Dialing and Name Addressing.
B. In the Name Dialing settings of the Messaging Management page, deselect Name Dialing and Name
Addressing.
C. In the Privacy and Blocking settings of the User Creation Template, deselect Name Dialable by
External Callers.
D. In the Desktop and Web Messaging Configuration settings of the Mailbox Class Details page, select
Allow User to Hide Entry in Address Book.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The performance and capabilities for Remote Notification are important for both the system
administrator and the user. Which two statements about configuring Remote Notification are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The schedule is defined in the mailbox class.
B. It can be set up with telephone keypad commands.
C. It can be configured for up to three target Directory Numbers (DNs).
D. It allows only a specific number of retries before notification is turned off.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 You are implementing the Outlook Single Inbox feature at your company. The IT team asks you how
this feature affects the Exchange Server. Which information will you share to answer their question?
A. The original CallPilot message and all copies are transferred to the Exchange Server.
B. Synchronization between the Exchange Server and the CallPilot Server occurs even when CallPilot is
not running.
C. Copies of users' CallPilot messages are saved to the Exchange Server. The original messages reside
on the CallPilot server.
D. Desktop Messaging synchronization does not require that Microsoft Outlook be actively running on the
user's computer.
Answer: C

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NO.7 After a user attempts to launch an Email-By-Phone session by pressing 8-9, the system responds by
stating that the message list is empty and returns the user to CallPilot messages. What is a possible
cause for this scenario?
A. The message list on the email server is empty.
B. The user has an incorrect user ID or password.
C. The Email-By-Phone feature is not enabled for this user.
D. The email address is entered incorrectly in the mailbox properties.
Answer: A

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NO.8 CallPilot Desktop Messaging clients at a company are unable to send messages from the desktop
interface. Which messaging protocol must be configured to enable this capability?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A

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