2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: 7003.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

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NO.5 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equ ir e m en t s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3305
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The Alarm Manager page on Experience Portal Manager shows an Alarm:
Q_ICR62006: User-to-User header is missing from SIP response 183 Session Which Avaya product in
the deployment is not configured correctly?
A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya Aura Session Manager
C. Intelligent Customer Routing
D. Avaya Aura Experience Portal
Answer: A

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NO.2 You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL
database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a
backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose
three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) 2 SP or newer on your Avaya Aura
Experience Portal (AAEP) 6.0. You run your first campaign and the POM monitor appears to shoe an
Active Job, but no outgoing call spears to be made. You notice the following entry in the
CmpMgrService.out log file:
CmpMgrService.out
@2011-10-21-10-24-18|P_POMCM002 | ERROR| POMCM | | | Out call web service returned fault:
user does not have permission to run this Web Service | 192.9.84.93####
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. Login to Experience Portal Manager (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "POM Campaign
Manager" and restart the campaign
B. Logging to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Web Services" and restart theCampaign
C. Login to (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > outbound Settings> voice Server link
has the assigned role of "Web Services"
D. Login to EPM using a user with an assigned role of "Administration" and ensure that the outcall
user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > Outbound Settings > Voice Server
link has assigned the role of "POM Campaign Manager".
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the last step that is required after successful installation of intelligent Customer
Routing (ICR) Core?
A. Restart the terracotta service.
B. Restart the ICR Core service.
C. Restart the httpd service.
D. Reboot the machine.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have installed an Orchestration Designer application on a Tomcat application server and
try at call to the application. The test call fails.
What is the best way to validate the application installation?
A. Check the Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAEP) System Monitor.
B. Check AAEP administration System Maintenance > Log Viewer
C. Open a browser window and access the application Http:// <host>: <port>/<application
name>/index.html
D. Look at the Application Detail Report in the AAEP administration.
Answer: C

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NO.6 On an existing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) server, what three are required
when configuring a voice campaign? (Choose three)
A. the IP of the POM server
B. an existing contact strategy
C. the Call Classification Analysis (CCA) timeout to be used
D. an existing contact attribute
E. sufficient voice ports and POM CCA licenses
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Which three are exit reasons in an Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) CCA Session detail report?
(Choose three)
A. Call completed
B. Call failed
C. Call completed in SSA
D. Call routed
E. Call transferred
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 After installing a five server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system you check the port
distribution page only to see the name of the media Processing Platform (MPP) servers in the
system have allocated ports.
Which two are the most probable causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. The AAEP WebLM license has expired; either it was a temporary license or the client's Enterprise
WebLM server is down
B. One or more MPP system resources are overloaded
C. The specified VoIP gatekeeper or SIP gateway is incorrect
D. The Postgres service on the Experience Portal manager (EPM) is not running
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 6101-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An engineer needs to assign an IP address of 172.25.36 for out of band management
of an Ethernet
Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192
Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command should the engineer use?
A. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig set ip 172.25.10.36/26
B. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig set ip 172.25.10.36/27
C. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig net mgemt ip 172.25.10.36/27
D. ERS86000:5# config bootconfig net mgemt ip 172.25.10.36/26
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician is implementing a new network that contains eight Ethernet Routing
Switch (ERS) 8600
switches and uses advanced features. What are two possibilities for generating licenses?
(Choose two)
A. one individual advanced feature license for each ERS8600 chassis
B. one multh-chassis license using multiple MAC addresses
C. one advanced feature license for the network
D. one premier feature license for the network
E. one site license per ERS 8600
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 How many Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 4500 Switches can be connected in a
single stack?
A. 4
B. 8
C.9
D. 10
E. 12
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the front panel port configuration the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 2550TPWR?
A. 48 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 48 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
B. 48 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 24 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
C. 50 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 25 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
D. 50 10/100BaesT ports(PoE on 50 pots)
Two combo 10/100/1000BaseT or SFP port
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where is the rate-limit feature of the Converged Campus architecture limited?
A. uplink ports on the core switches
B. access ports on the edge switches
C. inter Switch Trunk ports on the core switches
D. uplink ports on the edge switches
Answer: B

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NO.6 A technician wants to use the New Unit Quick Configuration feature to add new units to
a stack of
Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 5000 switch without resetting it. As well as enabling the
feature, what else
must be done to use the New Unit Quick Configuration feature?
A. Save a template on the base unit
B. Save a template on the backup unit
C. Insert a new switch in the stack
D. Apply the feature license
Answer: A

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NO.7 As stated in RFC 2338, ( Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) VRRP management
problems can occur
if the address used by the management station is used incorrectly. Which two statements
describe how to
avoid management problems? (Choose two)
A. A VRRP interface MUST accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated with
the virtual
router if it is not the IP address owner(priority = 255)
B. A VRRP interface MUST NOT accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated
with the
virtual router if it is the IP address owner(priority = 255)
C. A VRRP interface MUST NOT accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated
with the
virtual router if it is not the IP address owner(priority = 255)
D. A VRRP interface MUST accept packets addressed to the IP address(es) associated with
the virtual
router if it is the IP address owner(priority = 255)
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Consider the following deployment requirements:
Support 40 100 Mtv s VoIP telephones, each with a power requirement of 6 Watt
Support 40 directly connected 1000 Mtv s Ethernet workstations with UTP cable
Support four 1Gb/s Ethernet uplinks to the core switch using mulitiode fiber
Which configuration is the minimum hardware required for an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS)
8306
chassis that will support the above requirements?
A. two 8348TX-PWR
one 8393SF
B. one 8348GTX
one 8348TX-PWR
one 8393SF
C. one 8348GTX
one 8348TX-PWR
one 8308XL
one 8393SF
D. two 8348TX-PWR
one 8308XX
one 8393SF
Answer: B

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NO.9 A technician is configuring Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) for an Ethernet Routing
Switch (ERS) 8600
switch cluster. To ensure the fastest possible recovery time, which feature should be
avoided?
A. VLACP
B. MLT
C. 802.3ad
D. SLPP
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician is configuring 802.1 Q tagging. VLACP with short timeout, untagged
frames to be
discarded. Which part of the network is being configured?
A. layer 2 core
B. layer 3 core
C. the edge
D. the uplinks
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3102
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that
the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session
Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password
is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again
in Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.3 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a
user
name and password. Which statement best explains why a user name and password are
required?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption
process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are
used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and
authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation.
For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main
site
and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system
manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. Undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and
the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data,
using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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NO.8 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been
asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new
Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in
the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating
Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the
Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

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NO.2 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

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NO.5 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 060-DSFA680
Exam Name: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.2 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.3 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.4 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.10 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.11 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.12 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.16 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.18 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.20 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.1 The RBC Company is performing datacenter scans on file shares within the corporate network. The
scans are permanent scans. Which of the following would require clearing the results of the previous scan
and performing a new complete scan?
A. New Grid Workers
B. New Grid Scan Group
C. New content blade in policy
D. Change of Operating System
Answer: C

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NO.2 Incidents that are created as the result of RSA DLP agent scan on an end user's computer will be
categorized as Datacenter Incidents.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Any ICAP client Proxy server can communicate with the ICAPserver by default. Which configuration file
is used to limit which Client proxy can connect to the ICAPserver appliance?
A. ICAP.cnf
B. ICAP.conf
C. proxy.conf
D. c-ICAP.conf
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which appliance can be set in scan and tag mode
A. Network Sensor
B. Network Controller
C. Network Interceptor
D. Network ICAPserver
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Linux based version of the DLP Enterprise Coordinator is installed on the RSA DLP Network
controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 RSA DLP Endpoint Enforce uses the same infrastructure as RSA DLP Endpoint Discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT available as an option in Incident handling rules for DLP Network or
Datacenter?
A. Quarantine end user action
B. Assign Incident to User or Group
C. Set incident severity to a different setting
D. Automatically close an incident if severity level is low
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following components is required to monitor/block HTTPS traffic in DLP Network?
A. Span Port
B. Bluecoat Proxy
C. Network Sensor
D. Network Controller
Answer: B

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NO.9 DLP network can decompress files that are compressed and analyze the contents of compressed files.
What is the maximum number of times, a file can be compressed before the e system cannot handle the
decompression/analysis of an attachment or transmission.
A. 20 levels of compression
B. 50 levels of compression
C. 75 levels of compression
D. 100 level of compression
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a component of the RSA DLP Suite?
A. Network
B. Endpoint
C. Filesystem
D. Datacenter
Answer: C

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