2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: 00M-654
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Emptoris Telecom Expense Management Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In TEM what does the acronym "BYOD" stand for?
A. Buy Your Own Data
B. Beyond Data
C. Bring Your Own Device
D. Bring Your Own Design
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is false?
A. IBM offers a fully automated TEM lifecycle solution across the telecom infrastructure including
data, voice, and mobile assets
B. The IBM offer focuses on wireless telecomm assets only
C. The IBM offer includes all critical TEM processes required by the Gartner TEM definition
D. The IBM offer is composed of multiple software platforms
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are considered "tier 1" competitors?
A. Tangoe
B. SAP
C. AT & T
D. Telesoft
Answer: A

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NO.4 The global TEM Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is approximately:
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 17%
D. 21%
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.reportlinker.com/p0787925 /Global-Telecom-Expense-Management-Market.h
tml(see first para on the page)

NO.5 Customers are indicating a desire for termination-at-will contracting, which indicates:
A. Short sales cycles
B. A vote of no confidence
C. Good buyer relationships
D. Low cost purchase
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-122
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 Common Sales Skills -v2)
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Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the benefit of using the Active Memory Expansion feature in Power Systems servers?
A. Memory capacity will virtually be doubled.
B. Memory will be disk-cached to improve performance.
C. Memory will be allocated to an LPARto improve performance.
D. Memory contents are compressed to allow for greater utilization.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following Power Systems design functions allows the system to identify
situations which can result in a system outage?
A. Light Path Diagnostics
B. Electronic Service Agent
C. First Failure Data Capture
D. Alternate Processor Recovery
Answer: C

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NO.3 An environment for a popular ISV application used on Power Systems must be sized.
Which IBM tool or resource should be used?
A. Techline
B. eConfigurator
C. Facts and Features
D. System Planning Tool
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a unique RAS characteristic of Power Systems Enterprise servers compared to Power
Systems Express servers?
A. Dynamic Processor Sparing
B. Dynamic Processor Deallocation
C. Dynamic Processor Error Recovery
D. Dynamic Service Processor Failover
Answer: D

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NO.5 What energy capability of Power Systems can be used in data centers to restrict server energy
consumption, especially in cases where the data center might be nearing the limit of the energy it
can provide?
A. Power Capping
B. EnergyScale for I/O
C. Processor Core Nap
D. Dynamic Power Saver
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a reason that POWER7 technology can provide higher throughput than Xeon x86
technology?
A. POWER7 supports more DIMM slots than x86.
B. POWER7 has higher redundancy of registers than x86.
C. POWER7 supports more virealization technologies than x86.
D. POWER7 supports 4 threads per core, while Xeon supports only 2.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has two production IBM POWER7+ 750s in the same data center.
The customer has an application in an LPAR that needs to run 24x7.
What is required to allow the planned migration of that LPAR to the second system?
A. A shared Hardware Management Console One dedicated core on each Power 750
B. PowerVM Enterprise Edition on both systems SAN storage accessible to the VIO Servers on each
Power 750
C. Systems Director Enterprise Edition A common shared processor pool on each Power 750
D. PowerVM Standard Edition Dual system accessibility to virtual SCSI or virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.8 When moving an HP-UX based application workload from an HP Superdome onto a Power
Systems server, which operating system will provide the easiest transition'?
A. AIX
B. IBMi
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
D. SuSe Linux Enterprise Server
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer is moving a small application from an existing POWER7 server to a new system in a
new location.
They will be moving an existing 12X I/O drawer to the new server
Which of the following configuration will support a 12X PCI-X expansion drawer?
A. A4-corePower710
B. A 4-core Power 720
C. A 6-core Power 730
D. A 6-core Power 720
Answer: D

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NO.10 A prospective customer is running a database application that cannot be upgraded.
They plan to replace it with a DB2-based server environment that can scale in the future.
The prospect has asked why anyone would choose Power Systems servers when Intel-based servers
cost less.
Which of the following is an effective response?
A. DB2 on Power Systems delivers more than ten times the throughput per core than on Intel due to
exploitation of SMT.
B. Core for core, Intel-based servers have more expensive DB2 software licensing costs when
compared to PowerSystems.
C. Power Systems servers offer a lower TCO due to greater processor power, virealization
technologies and bothhorizontal and vertical growth.
D. Power Systems servers offer superiority in energy-management technologies and use
dramatically less energy whilegenerating much less heat.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S01
Exam Name: HP (HP AssetCenter v5 x Software Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When can the Archival function of AssetCenter be enabled?
A. Only before creating the database
B. Only after creating the database
C. Both before and after creating the database
D. There is no Archival function
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three technologies are used within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. RDBMS
B. JavaScript
C. AQL
D. Cypress Basic
E. XML
F. C++
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which report software provides out-of-the-box AssetCenter reports?
A. Actuate
B. Crystal Decisions
C. Crystal Reports
D. Cognos
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are three types of filters that AssetCenter offers to enable the user to display their selected data?
Select THREE.
A. Query filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Universal filter
D. Standard filter
E. Linear filter
F. Simple filter
Answer: ADF

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NO.5 AssetCenter enables your organization to _______. Select THREE.
A. Define, optimize, and track specific business processes of an organization
B. Effectively manage documents within the enterprise
C. Secure and protect your employee identitiesSecure and protect your employee? identities
D. Manage an enterprise portfolio, which includes assets, contracts, inventory, and business data
important for achieving the business objective of an organization
E. Empower employees to make educated business decisions
Answer: ADE

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NO.6 Which activities or utilities are provided to help control costs within the enterprise?
A. Ability to manage ITSM activities within the enterprise
B. Ability to manage the database
C. Ability to manage software license compliance and entitlement
D. Ability to manage an enterprise IT topology
Answer: C

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NO.7 What four modules exist within AssetCenter? Select FOUR.
A. Portfolio Module
B. Request Module
C. Identity Module
D. Discovery Module
E. Procurement Module
F. Financials Module
G. Contract Module
Answer: AEFG

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NO.8 What four common data tables exist within the Portfolio module? Select FOUR.
A. Locations
B. Employees and departments
C. Contracts
D. Expense lines
E. Models
F. Natures
Answer: ABEF

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NO.9 What three IT Asset Management best practices are incorporated within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. Network Management
B. Service Management
C. Contract Management
D. Identity Management E. Asset Tracking
F. Procurement Management
Answer: CEF

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NO.10 What two tests must be completed before deployment of the AssetCenter application into a production
environment? Select TWO.
A. Performance tests
B. Consistency tests
C. No tests are required
D. Functional tests
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: HP0-S14
Exam Name: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which protocols are used in HP SIM to query events from failing devices? (Select two.)
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
C. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: CE

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NO.2 You have recently added a ProLiant BL20p G1 to the server blade enclosure monitored by PMP. At the
PMP License Administration page, this new server does not appear in the list of servers. Why?
A. The server does not have a valid serial number.
B. The server is too old and not supported by PMP.
C. The server has not yet been discovered by HP SIM.
D. The operating system running on this server is not supported.
E. The HP Insight Management Agents on this server are not at the required version.
Answer: C

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NO.3 HP SIM 5.1 features API support to allow dynamic creation of new event types. What does this
support enable you to do?
A. Modify event types without having full configuration rights.
B. Modify event types without manually updating the HP SIM database.
C. Add event types without restarting the HP SIM central management server (CMS).
D. Add event types without manually refreshing any event collections that display in the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which package integrates with HP SIM 5.1 to support monitoring and management of Itanium-based
server blades running HP-UX?
A. HP Integrity Essentials
B. HP ProLiant Essentials
C. HP OpenView Operations
D. HP SmartStart Scripting toolkit
Answer: A

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NO.5 When performing a Virtual to Physical migration (V2P), what are some prerequisites for the source
virtual machine? (Select two.)
A. Stop the HP SIM management agents on the virtual machine guest.
B. Insert the SMP Boot CD into the CD-ROM of the virtual machine guest.
C. Verify that the source virtual machine guest is powered off or suspended.
D. Verify that the source virtual machine host is licensed and managed by VMM.
E. Ensure that all network connections on the virtual machine guest have DHCP IP addresses.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 What happens when HP Storage Essentials integrates with HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SNMP for storage devices is disabled.
B. Data collection from SMI-S devices in HP SIM is disabled.
C. All storage-related events are forwarded to Storage Essentials.
D. Storage devices get marked as managed by Storage Essentials.
E. A new Storage Essentials user is added to the HP SIM user database.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 HP SIM 5.1 removes support for which product?
A. Oracle9i on HP-UX systems
B. HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager
C. PostgreSQL on x64 Linux operating systems
D. Insight Control Management Integrated Installer
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HP SIM procedure determines the system management protocol of a detected device and its
operating system?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which MX command generated the output shown in the exhibit?
A. mxtool
B. mxuser
C. mxauth
D. mxtoolbox
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which HP SIM process determines the associations between a management processor and its server,
a server blade and its enclosure, and an enclosure and its rack?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which function of the command mxquery is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. The mxquery command can provide output in XML format.
B. The language of the query results depends on the CMS locale.
C. Users with limited configuration rights privileges can execute mxquery.
D. To run mxquery, you no longer need access to the file system where HP SIM is installed.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which function regarding virtual machines is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. discovery of HP virtual machine systems
B. support for Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 remote console through a Mozilla browser
C. use of VMware Management Interface as a stand-alone tool to launch the remote console
D. not necessary to install VMware Remote Console on the system from which you are launching remote
console
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which protocol requires a special HP SIM component that configures the managed device to send
alerts to the Central Management Server (CMS) because it does not provide alerting capabilities?
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. WBEM
Answer: B

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NO.14 You find a 'critical' status in the Virtual Machine Management (VMM) column in HP SIM for the host
server running Microsoft Virtual Server 2005. What does this mean?
A. The virtual machine guest is in a state requiring attention.
B. The virtual machine host is licensed but is not currently communicating with VMM.
C. The VMM agent is installed on the virtual machine host but the host is not licensed.
D. The VMM agent is installed on the server but the server is not a virtual machine host.
Answer: B

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NO.15 When a system administrator attempts to update the firmware on a BladeSystem GbE2c interconnect
switch using HP SIM, the update is unsuccessful. What could be the reason?
A. The HP SIM server is running on Linux.
B. The VCA agent on the GbE2c interconnect switch is not active.
C. The GbE2c interconnect switch is not licensed for firmware upgrades.
D. The GbE2c interconnect switch can only be upgraded using the serial connection.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which types of HP Systems Insight Manager tools can be run on target systems? (Select three.)
A. XML-based type aware
B. all-system aware (ASA)
C. Intel system aware (ISA)
D. web launch aware (WLA)
E. single-system aware (SSA)
F. multiple-system aware (MSA)
Answer: DEF

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NO.17 Which protocols are used by HP SIM to identify nodes running Linux? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. SSH
D. HTTP
E. SNMP
F. WBEM
Answer: DEF

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NO.18 When is it necessary to install the WMI Mapper on a Windows-based Central Management Server
(CMS)?
A. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Linux operating system
B. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP-UX operating system
C. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Windows operating system
D. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP OpenVMS operating system
Answer: C

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NO.19 What does HP SIM 5.1 require to access management information on an HP ProLiant server running
Microsoft Windows Server 2003?
A. DMI
B. SSH-2
C. WBEM
D. Open SSH
E. WMI Mapper proxy
Answer: E

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NO.20 When is system polling initiated?
A. when a system has generated an error condition
B. when a new system is added to the HP SIM database
C. when the HP SIM central management server (CMS) powers on
D. when HP SIM receives an alert from a managed system to determine system status
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y11
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which EAP method is considered the least secure solution for implementing 802.1X user
authentication on a wireless LAN?
A. SIM
B. MD5
C. TTLS
D. FAST
E. LEAP
F. PEAP
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statements describing Web authentication support on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select
two.)
A. An SSL-based login is required.
B. It can be configured on ports that also have MAC authentication assigned.
C. A successfully authenticated user can be redirected to a configurable URL.
D. The switch's built-in DHCP, ARP, and DNS services assist with Web authentication while a port is in
the authenticating state.
E. When a client connects to a Web authenticator port and a Web browser is opened, the Web browser is
automatically redirected to the switch's Web-Auth home page.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which action describes a
perimeter security measure?
A. limiting switch access to SSH
B. deploying 802.1X authentication
C. installing an Intrusion Prevention System
D. using a secure operating system for network applications
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement describing dynamic VLAN assignment for 802.1X authenticator ports on ProCurve
switches is correct?
A. If a GVRP-learned VLAN is used, the RADIUS server must specify that attribute.
B. The VLAN used may be statically defined on the switch or learned through GVRP.
C. If a client fails authentication, the port is reassigned to the Secure Management VLAN.
D. If a client is authenticated, but no VLAN attribute is returned by a RADIUS server, the switch blocks the
port.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have just installed two ProCurve 5406zl switches, one on the second floor and one on the third
floor of your office. You are using 802.1X for port-access authentication. All users have an 802.1X
supplicant installed on their computers and you have configured a RADIUS server with a remote access
policy for each floor. Shortly after connecting the computers, users on the second floor report that they
cannot access any network resources. You can ping the RADIUS server from both switches, but when
you check the RADIUS log, you see authentication requests coming only from the third floor switch. Why
are the second floor users unable to connect to the network?
A. The IP address of the RADIUS server has not been configured on the second floor switch.
B. The second floor computers are using the wrong EAP type for authentication with the RADIUS server.
C. The shared secret configured on the second floor switch does not match the shared secret configured
on the RADIUS server.
D. No default gateway has been configured on the second floor switch, therefore no authentication
requests can reach the RADIUS server.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which EAP methods support authentication of an 802.1X supplicant based on a user's name and
password? (Select two.)
A. SIM
B. TLS
C. TTLS
D. SPAP
E. PEAP
F. CHAP
Answer: CE

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NO.7 You have ProCurve Identity Driven Manager currently deployed in your network and have recently
modified an Access Profile. Which task should you perform next?
A. Restart the IDM Agent.
B. Deploy the configuration.
C. Run the Secure Access Wizard.
D. Update the Access Policy Groups.
E. Start Active Directory synchronization.
F. Rediscover switches affected by the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement describing Web authentication support on the ProCurve Switch 5400zl series is
correct?
A. User credentials or a digital certificate can authenticate the client.
B. It is mutually exclusive of other authentication methods on the same port.
C. After successful user authentication, a port is assigned to a VLAN based on an order of priority.
D. If a port is configured to support multiple users, different static untagged VLANs can be assigned
concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two EAP methods support tunneling of a weaker authentication method such as MS-CHAPv2?
A. TLS and SIM
B. PAP and SPAP
C. LEAP and FAST
D. PEAP and TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a capability of the Secure Access Wizard supported by ProCurve Identity Driven Manager?
A. It configures 802.1X authenticator ports and RADIUS server settings on a switch.
B. It verifies the integrity of the ProCurve Identity Driven Manager database using Active Directory.
C. It conceals all security-related credentials stored in the switch configuration before backing up the file.
D. It checks a switch configuration file's 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication settings for consistency and
reports any
errors.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
The RADIUS server and switch are correctly configured. The switch has the VLAN assignments and
port-access
commands configured, as shown in the diagram.
What happens to port 10 after the user connects to the network?
A. remains in an unauthorized state
B. becomes a member of VLAN 20
C. becomes a member of VLAN 25
D. becomes a member of VLAN 200
Answer: D

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NO.12 You want to use 802.1X port-access authentication to assign Microsoft Active Directory users to a
particular VLAN
based on user credentials. Which condition must exist?
A. The VLAN ID must exist on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID must be defined in a GVRP configuration.
C. The port through which the user is authenticating must be defined as a member of the VLAN.
D. The user must be a member of an Active Directory Group that has an associated RADIUS remote-
access policy.
Answer:A

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NO.13 A university shares a core routing switch between two departments. Each department has a separate
ProCurve edge switch deployed and neither department wants the other to have management access to
their respective switch. Which security measures can prevent management access by the respective
departments? (Select three.)
A. Enable the Privilege Mode option.
B. Configure Authorized IP Managers.
C. Define Secure Management VLANs.
D. Implement Command Authorization.
E. Use RADIUS authentication with separate policies.
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 Which statements describing MAC authentication on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select two.)
A. It can be configured on the same port with Web authentication and 802.1X authentication.
B. The device's MAC address is sent to the RADIUS server as the user name and password.
C. The switch's built-in DHCP server initially assigns an IP address in the 192.168.0.0 private subnet.
D. The switch automatically initiates user authentication of a device when the device communicates on a
MAC authenticator port.
E. Configuration involves defining ports as MAC authenticators, the RADIUS authentication protocol to
use, and then activating the ports for MAC authentication operation.
Answer: BD

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NO.15 What is an operational difference between the TLS and MD5 EAP methods?
A. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication; MD5 uses certificates for
authentication.
B. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication and encryption; MD5 uses certificates
for authentication and encryption.
C. TLS uses digital certificates for mutual authentication; MD5 uses a challenge/handshake mechanism
to authenticate the client to the server.
D. TLS uses a name and password along with digital certificates to produce a session key; MD5 uses a
name and password to produce a session key.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which statements describing the ProCurve switch debug facility are correct? (Select two.)
A. The instrumentation monitor must be enabled first.
B. Specific debug message categories can be selectively enabled.
C. The debug destinations can be set to a session window and a Syslog server concurrently.
D. Debug messages have the same format as standard Event Log messages including the event type
and timestamp.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 A customer calls you and describes a switch management access problem involving SSH. The
customer indicates that he is denied access after supplying the login credentials. The customer is using a
RADIUS server for centralized authentication, and has used the ping command to verify that the SSH
client, switch, and RADIUS server are all reachable. What is a potential cause of this problem?
A. A self-signed digital certificate has not been installed on the switch.
B. SSH has not been configured for the login access level on the switch.
C. A remote-access policy on the RADIUS server has not been configured to support the CHAP protocol.
D. The digital certificate of the public Certificate Authority used by the switch has not been installed in the
SSH client.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which protocols are supported by a ProCurve switch for communication with a RADIUS server that is
used to authenticate 802.1X supplicants? (Select two.)
A. EAP-RADIUS
B. MD5-RADIUS
C. CHAP-RADIUS
D. PAP-SPAP-RADIUS
E. MS-CHAPv2-RADIUS
Answer:AC

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NO.19 Authentication of switch management or general network users can involve multiple network
components. Which statement describing these network components is correct?
A. A user directory server operates as the policy enforcement point.
B. The authentication server is also known as the policy decision point.
C. A ProCurve switch functions as a policy repository for switch management access using a remote user
account.
D. A RADIUS access-accept message is used by a client to acknowledge authentication settings
assigned by the server.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statements describing the 802.1X user authentication process are correct? (Select two.)
A. The supplicant and authentication server must support the same EAP method for the authentication
process to proceed.
B. A switch passes EAP messages between the supplicant and authentication switch without modification
or translation.
C. After a RADIUS server confirms a user is authenticated, the switch sends an EAP-Success message
and sets the port state to authorized.
D. Different RADIUS servers must be configured on the switch if authentication of both switch
management users and 802.1X supplicants will be performed.
E. If a supplicant receives an EAP-Request message specifying a particular EAP method to be supported,
the authentication session is closed if the supplicant does not support that EAP method.
Answer:AC

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Exam Code: HP0-083
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS Network Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which DECnet configuration files need to be kept synchronized in an OpenVMS cluster? Select TWO.
A. NETOBJECT.DAT
B. NET$MANAGE.DAT
C. NET$SECURITY.DAT
D. NETNODE_LOCAL.DAT
E. NETPROXY.DAT/NET$PROXY.DAT
Answer: AE

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NO.2 What is a function of ICMP?
A. sharing web pages between nodes
B. translating names to addresses
C. transporting and routing information
D. sharing IP status and error information
Answer: D

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NO.3 A netstat -r command on node 16.112.138.25 displays the following information:
Routing tables
Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Interface
Route Tree for Protocol Family 26:
Route Tree for Protocol Family 2:
default 16.112.128.1 UGS 2 94624 WE0
16.112.128 belize U 1 48405 WE0
belize belize UHL 0 0 WE0
LOCALHOST LOCALHOST UHL 49 13939757 LO0
16.10.121.2 16.112.128.3 UGHS 3 57536 WE0
Which route is used to ping node 16.3.12.47?
A. LOCALHOST
B. default
C. 16.112.128
D. 16.10.121.2
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the function of the ARP protocol?
A. to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
B. to resolve service names to port assignments
C. to ensure quality of service (QoS) for a connection
D. to determine the shortest path between two IP nodes
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which types of routing can you set up on an OpenVMS system? Select TWO.
A. fixed
B. static
C. flexible
D. adaptive
E. dynamic
Answer: BE

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NO.6 What is a function of TCPIP$INETACP?
A. monitoring all pseudo devices
B. ensuring that network servers are running
C. maintaining the routing table
D. listening for and dispatching incoming connections
Answer: D

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NO.7 What do you do to preserve site-specific parameter settings and commands for a specific TCPIP
service?
A. Edit SYS$SYSTARTUP:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
B. Edit SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
C. Create files of the form SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
D. Create files of the form SYS$STARTUP:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What happens if the "Retransmit Threshold" of the OSI transport is exceeded?
A. server process exits
B. connection is dropped
C. DECnet hangs
D. system shuts down
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have a system with three network adapters. How would you benefit from having two adapters on
the same subnet?
A. network connectivity failover
B. load balancing of MOP traffic
C. route two networks through OpenVMS system
D. allows the system to use one adapter for send and the other for receive
Answer: A

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NO.10 A user needs to run a TCP/IP application using an unprivileged account. Which port numbers are
available for this?
A. any free port above 511
B. any free port above 1023
C. any free port above 2047
D. any free port above 4095
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which protocol does GateD use to advertise routes?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. ESNMP
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a similarity between TCPIP proxy and DECnet proxy?
A. both use the same proxy database
B. both allow remote users anonymous access
C. both use AUTHORIZE to manage their database
D. both allow remote users to transparently access files
Answer: D

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NO.13 How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64
Answer: D

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NO.14 66.96.0 255.255.255.192
A. 62
B. 64
C. 191
D. 192
E. 254
Answer: A

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10. Which network device forwards packets between IP subnets?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. switch
D. router
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer requires that users can establish interactive sessions across the network, but they will NOT
allow passwords to be sent in the clear. What can you use to satisfy this dual requirement?
A. RSH
B. SSH
C. RLOGIN
D. SET HOST
Answer: B

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NO.16 What advantage do TCP broadcast packets have over UDP broadcast packets?
A. They can be routed.
B. They are better compressed.
C. They have a shorter round trip time.
D. They implement a one to many message.
Answer: A

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NO.17 How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which technique can you apply to connect two network segments with nodes having the same
addresses?
A. Active Directory
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.19 How many hosts can be configured using the IP network and subnet mask shown below?

NO.20 You need to present four names to an IP network. What is the minimal hardware configuration
required?
A. one server with one NIC
B. one server with four NICs
C. two servers with two NICs each
D. four servers with one NIC each
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S18
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel technology for large database transfers and very large input/output
operations
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN
facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte
and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

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NO.5 What features are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24?
(Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: HP0-S16
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
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Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A. BL465c
B. BL680c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL870c
F. BL2x220c
Answer: DE

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NO.2 Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A. SB40c
B. BL485c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL2x220c
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the function of ECC memory?
A. It only detects single-bit errors.
B. It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C. It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D. It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A. NUMA
B. shared bus
C. one-to-many
D. point-to-point
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium
B. AMD Opteron
C. Intel Pentium IV
D. Intel Pentium M
E. Intel Xeon Quad Core
Answer: BE

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NO.6 Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C. socket layered balancing
D. NIC assisted load balancing
E. switch assisted load balancing
Answer: AE

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NO.7 How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A. as part of a SmartStart installation
B. with the initial installation of HP SIM
C. as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D. with a separate license key in HP SIM
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the standard HP warranty on optional components such as mezzanines, fans, and power
supplies?
A. 1-1-1 (1 year parts; 1 year labor; 1 year onsite limited global warranty)
B. 3-3-3 (3 year parts; 3 year labor; 3 year onsite limited global warranty)
C. 1-0-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer)
D. 1-1-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer; 1 year labor)
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using
threephase
power?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A. the left one
B. the right one
C. the active one
D. the first one installed
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J25
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks AIS 2008 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 On an EVA, which event log file is used to log disk shelf events?
A. Controller Event log file
B. Hardware Event log file
C. Storage Cell Event log file
D. Management Event log file
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are starting Command View EVA by using the SmartStart EVA CD to manage a storage
system. Which statement is correct?
A. You must enable the Advanced mode in SmartStart EVA and right-click on the storage system icon.
B. You must specify the IP address of the management server and select the storage system to
manage within Command View EVA.
C. You must specify only the name of the storage system; SmartStart EVA will automatically locate
and start Command View EVA for this system.
D. You must start Command View EVA from the SmartStart EVA CD without installation and select
the storage system to manage within Command View EVA.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which controller components of an EVA4400 are customer replaceable?
A. only cache batteries
B. the entire shelf as one unit
C. all components that are available as spare parts
D. all components you can replace without opening the shelf
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve
the I/O performance?
A. write-back cache mode (WBCM)
B. write-through cache mode (WTCM)
C. super-sequential cache mode (SSCM)
D. independent cache performance mode (ICPM)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 On an EVA4400, what is a requirement for a fully allocated snapshot in relation to its source?
A. It must be located in the same disk group.
B. It must be located in a different disk group.
C. It must be assigned to a higher redundancy level.
D. It must be assigned to the same redundancy level.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What can you use to display performance data provided by the EVA?
A. SIM
B. SSSU.exe
C. Command View EVA
D. performance monitor of the Microsoft Windows operating system
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which critical events does the Device Specific Module (DSM) impact? (Select three.)
A. error handling
B. bus initialization
C. request handling
D. device initialization
E. OS kernel interface
F. plug and play interface
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 How do you acquire management access to fabric switches?
A. through the FCIP link
B. by using SmartStart EVA
C. by using a Telnet connection
D. through Command View EVA
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you add disks to a disk group on an EVA4400, what is a best practice to maintain
redundancy to multiple disk failures?
A. multiples of 2
B. multiples of 6
C. multiples of 8
D. multiples of the number of disk shelves
Answer: C

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