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Exam Code: JN0-521
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV.Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-16

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.4 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.8 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.9 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.11 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.13 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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NO.14 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.18 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.19 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.20 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.22 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.23 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.25 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.26 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.27 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.30 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-130
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-16

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NO.1 In a Bridged 1483 network, which set of commands is used to configure an ATM subinterface?
A. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip address unnumbered loopback0
B. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip unnumbered loopback0
C. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip address unnumbered loopback0
D. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip unnumbered loopback0
Answer: D

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NO.2 Is the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process called Deterministic or Static and
why?
A. It is Static. If the priorities are equal for a new neighbor and the current DIS only.
B. It is Deterministic. If the well-known pseudonode and system ID is configured on the new neighbor only.
C. It is Deterministic. When a new router appears on a multi-access network with a higher priority value, it
is elected as the DIS.
D. It is Static. When a new intermediate system powers up on a multi-access network, even if it has a
higher priority, it may become a backup DIS.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three statements are true regarding the DHCP Internal Server? (Choose three.)
A. Can be in remote-access mode.
B. Can be in equal-access mode.
C. Can be in standalone mode.
D. Standalone mode is the default.
E. Equal-access mode is the default.
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 You would like to view all Fast Ethernet interfaces currently using VLAN tagging and the specific VLANs
each interface is using.
Which CLI command displays this information?
A. show fast interface
B. show vlan interface
C. show vlan subinterface
D. show fast interface vlan
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three statements about Label-Switched Paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose three.)
A. LSPs are bidirectional.
B. LSPs are unidirectional.
C. LSPs can be signaled by CAC.
D. LSPs can be configured explicitly.
E. LSPs can be configured dynamically.
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 Which CLI command displays the status of a PPP over Ethernet subinterface?
A. show pppoe interface
B. show ppp int state up
C. show ip interface brief
D. show pppoe subinterface
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which message type is used to initiate an RSVP-TE label switched path?
A. path
B. resv
C. setup
D. session
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword?
A. enable password 0 mypassword
B. enable password 3 mypassword
C. enable password 5 mypassword
D. enable password 10 mypassword
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two BGP attributes are incorporated for loop prevention within an AS using a route reflection
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. AS Path
B. Next Hop
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which two types of routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)
A. Routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPF.
B. Routes that originate on the local router and are advertised into OSPF.
C. Routes that are transiting the local router and are BGP learned routes.
D. Routes that originate on the local router and are injected using a route map.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which CLI command displays the VRFs that are operational within each virtual router?
A. show vir
B. show ip vrf
C. show vrf vir
D. show mpls vrf
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which CLI command disconnects all subscribers on an ATM PVC?
A. clear port 4/3.99
B. logout port 4/3.99
C. clear subscriber port 4/3.99
D. logout subscriber port 4/3.99
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which configuration command places interfaces whose IP addresses are between 192.168.0.0 and
192.168.255.255 into OSPF area 0?
A. network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.0.0.0
B. network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0.0.0.0
C. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
D. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two services protect the ERX Edge Router from unauthorized CLI logins?
A. IPSec
B. SecureID
C. local passwords
D. default IP policy
E. RADIUS authentication
Answer: CE

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16. Your ERX Edge Router is constantly going to a boot## prompt.
What is the most likely cause for this condition?
A. bad SRP
B. low voltage
C. bad mid-plane
D. corrupted flash
Answer: D

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17. Which sequence of events describes the order used to restore normal router operation after
experiencing a corrupted flash?
A. initialize flash, reload, copy new system files from FTP server
B. reload, copy new system files from FTP server, initialize flash
C. initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server, reload
D. reload, initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server
Answer: C

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18. You are trying to recover from a corrupted flash.
Which configuration command configures an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 on the SRP management
interface when the ERX1400 router is at the boot## prompt?
A. ip address 192.168.1.1/24
B. ip address 192.168.1.1 subnetmask 24
C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
Answer: C

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19. What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Answer: D

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20. Which configuration command is used to make the ERX Edge Router an NTP server?
A. set ntp-server
B. set ntp server
C. ntp-server enable
D. ntp server enable
Answer: D

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21. Which configuration command allows a virtual router to receive updates from a configured NTP
source?
A. ntp enable
B. enable ntp
C. set ntp-client
D. enable ntp-client
Answer: A

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22. Which configuration command is used to send debug level events to the console in real time?
A. log here severity debug
B. log destination console severity debug
C. log severity debug destination console
D. log realtime destination console severity debug
Answer: B

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23. Which command initiates a packet trace for all PPP packets on interface atm 6/1.33 ?
A. log filter debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
B. log severity debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
C. log filter debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
D. log severity debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
Answer: B

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24. Log messages are appearing very quickly on the console of your ERX Edge Router.
Which Privileged Exec command disables real-time console logging?
A. no log here
B. no log console
C. destination console severity 7
D. destination console logging off
Answer: A

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25. Which two configuration commands are required to direct debug level console logging to your current
ERX Edge Router Telnet session? (Choose two.)
A. log here
B. log telnet here
C. log destination console severity 7
D. log destination telnet severity debug
Answer: AC

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26. A log filter of log severity DEBUG pppPacket ATM 4/3.66 is configured within the category of
pppPacket.
Which configuration command removes this specific log filter?
A. no log severity pppPacket
B. no log severity debug pppPacket
C. no log severity pppPacket atm 4/3.66
D. no log severity debug pppPacket 4/3.66
Answer: C

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27. Which configuration command removes all log filters currently configured on the ERX Edge Router?
A. no log here
B. no log fields
C. no log filters
D. no log severity
Answer: C

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28. Which three statements describe macros on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.)
A. They prompt users for input.
B. They cannot prompt users for input.
C. They can be created on the router itself.
D. They are an embedded programming language.
E. They can be created on the user's workstation.
Answer: ADE

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29. Which command is used to execute a macro called setup.mac ?
A. macro setup
B. macro setup.mac
C. run macro setup
D. run macro setup.mac
Answer: B

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30. Which control expression must be the last line in all macros?
A. <# end #>
B. <# finish #>
C. <# endtmpl #>
D. <# terminate #>
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-343
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT))
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Total Q&A: 393 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-16

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NO.1 Which statements are true about graceful Routing Engines switchover (GRES)?
A. Configuration on both Routing Engines must be synchronized.
B. The backup Routing Engine cannot be managed through IP address because RPD does not run on
backup the Routing Engine.
C. Different hostnames must be configured on both Routing-Engines.
D. Both Routing-Engines are managed through a single out-of-band-management IP address.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three statements correctly describe the default BGP advertisement behavior in the Junos OS?
(Choose three.)
A. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to IBGP peers.
B. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to other EBGP peers.
C. Routes learned through IBGP are advertised to other IBGP peers.
D. Routes learned through IBGP will be advertised to EBGP peers.
E. Routes learned through an IGP are automatically advertised to EBGP peers.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which configuration correctly sets interface ge-0/0/4 in trunk mode, carrying VLANs v10 and v20?
A. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
} } }
B. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
}
}
}
C. ge-0/0/4 {
vlan-tagging;
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
}
}
}
D. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 10 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
unit 20 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
}
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, in which spanning-tree state would the indicated port be.?
A. listening
B. learning
C. forwarding
D. blocking
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Junos command correctly configures the ge-0/0/0.0 interface to operate only for IS-IS Level 2?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 2 enable
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 1 disable
C. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 2 enable
D. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 1 disable
Answer: D

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NO.6 How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 24 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 48 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which configuration disables a port when more than 30,000 Kbps of broadcast traffic is received over
an aggregated Ethernet interface with two member links?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which BGP attributes are listed in the correct route selection order?
A. local preference, AS path, origin, MED
B. local preference, MED, AS path, origin
C. AS path, local preference, origin, MED
D. MED, origin, local preference, AS path
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF?
A. External LSAs are advertised in a stub area.
B. An ABR does not announce a default route into a stub area.
C. Stub area internal routers generate a default route.
D. Only totally stubby areas need a default route.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the default behavior of a trunk port when it receives transit traffic without a VLAN tag?
A. It drops the traffic.
B. It forwards the traffic.
C. It tags the transit traffic with lowest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
D. It tags the transit traffic with highest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two pieces of information are communicated by IS-IS TLVs? (Choose two.)
A. network protocols supported
B. designated router priority
C. authentication key
D. PDU Length
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which OSPF LSA type is sent by all routers in an area to advertise its connected subnets?
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which configuration summarizes external routes in the 172.16.0.0/22 range into a single prefix on an
ABR for Area 1?
A. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa {
default-metric 1;
metric-type 1;
}
}
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
B. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
}
C. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
stub summaries;
}
}
}
D. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa;
area-range 172.16.0.0/22 restrict;
}
}
}
Answer: B

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NO.14 Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?
A. per-flow load balancing
B. a floating static route
C. per-packet load balancing
D. a qualified next hop
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following can be used for both security and loop prevention?
A. firewall filters
B. DHCP snooping
C. dynamic ARP inspection D. MAC move limiting
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which OSPF area type can contain Type 7 LSAs?
A. backbone
B. not-so-stubby
C. stub
D. totally stubby
Answer: B

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NO.17 In the following output, what does the asterisk indicate?
A. The interface is configured as a trunk.
B. The interface is configured for spanning-tree protocol.
C. The interface is active.
D. The interface is inactive.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router's autonomous system?
A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432
B. set routing-options local-as 65432
C. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432
D. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432
Answer: D

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NO.19 An administrator finds that traffic from a large file download over an HTTP session is not load-balanced
across multiple links in a LAG. What is the possible cause?
A. Per-packet load-balancing is not configured.
B. The redundant path has a different IGP metric.
C. The hash key is not configured in the forwarding-options stanza.
D. This is the expected behavior.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which protocol is an IGP?
A. LACP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. PAGP
Answer: B

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NO.21 When loop protection is enabled on an interface, what happens when the port stops receiving BPDUs?
A. The port is placed in a loop-inconsistent role.
B. The port is placed into listening mode.
C. The port is transitioned into a forwarding state.
D. The interface is disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following is enabled by default on an EX Series switch?
A. MAC move limiting
B. storm control
C. IP source guard
D. dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: B

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NO.23 What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)
A. topology change notification
B. configuration change
C. configuration
D. root bridge
Answer: A,C

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NO.24 Which two OSPF LSA types can be used to advertise routes between areas? (Choose two.)
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: C,D

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NO.25 Configuring bpdu-timeout-action enables which protection mechanism?
A. root protection
B. BPDU protection
C. loop protection
D. RSTP protection
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which two of the following are functions of the BGP update message? (Choose two.)
A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid.
B. It notes that an unsupported option is detected from the open message.
C. It transports routing information between BGP peers.
D. It readvertises routes that have already been sent and acknowledged.
Answer: A,C

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NO.27 When processing inbound Ethernet frames, which firewall filter is evaluated first by an EX Series
switch?
A. port filter
B. VLAN filter
C. trunk filter
D. route filter
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which routing-instance type allows the sharing of interface routes and the support features used in
source-based routing?
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. multi-instance
Answer: C

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NO.29 What is the correct sequence of OSPF adjacency formation?
A. Down, Init, ExStart, 2way, Loading, Exchange, Full
B. Down, 2way, Init, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
C. Down, Init, 2way, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
D. Down, Init, 2way, Loading, ExStart, Exchange, Full
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the minimum configuration necessary to create two VLANs and two operational RVIs?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-314
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Pulse Access Control, Specialist (JNCIS-AC))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-16

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NO.1 You are configuring an active/passive cluster of SRX Series devices as the firewall enforcer on a MAG
Series device. Which statement is true?
A. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single serial number of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
B. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with both serial numbers of the clustered SRX Series
devices defined in the configuration.
C. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single IP address of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
D. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with the VIP of the clustered SRX Series device defined
in the configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to create a custom Junos Pulse configuration. Which two are required? (Choose two)
A. Connection set
B. Configuration set
C. Custom installer
D. Component set
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You have a Junos Pulse Secure Access Service acting as an IF-MAP client, configured to federate all
user roles to a Junos Pulse Access Control Service acting as an IF-MAP Federation server. A remote user
using Junos Pulse logs in to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service; the Junos Pulse Secure Access
Service provisions a remote access session for that user.
What happens next?
A. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service redirects the user to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
for authentication
B. The Junos Pulse Access Control Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
C. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service publishes user session and role information to the IFMAP
Federation server,
D. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three settings are accessible from the serial console menu on a MAG Series device? (Choose
three.)
A. The ping command
B. Factory default reset
C. Personality image
D. License imports
E. Admin login credentials
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the cause of the error shown in the exhibit?
A. A RADIUS request is being received from a device that is not configured on the RADIUS Client page.
B. A user entered an incorrect password during RADIUS authentication.
C. A RADIUS proxy attempt failed to reach the configured proxy server.
D. The RADIUS shared secret is incorrect.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You want to ensure that users who access the company's protected resources present a client
certificate before they are allowed to sign in.
What should you configure?
A. A certificate authentication policy that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the
user is signed in.
B. A certificate authentication policy that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted
client CA to sign in.
C. A certificate role restriction that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the user is
signed in.
D. A certificate role restriction that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted client
CA to sign in.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are configuring an IPsec routing policy that will be used with a ScreenOS firewall enforcer. What
must you also configure?
A. Source IP policies on the ScreenOS device
B. ScreenOS IPsec policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C. VPN NAT traversal on the ScreenOS device
D. Source interface policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a type of firewall enforcer supported by the Junos Pulse Access Control Service.?
A. Checkpoint firewall
B. SRX Series device
C. DP sensor
D. MX Series device
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the function of Host Checker?
A. To allow clientless access to the network
B. To restrict access to protected resources on the network
C. To scan an endpointfor compliance with security policies
D. To push a firewall policy to the endpoint's local firewall application
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is trying to decide which 802.1X inner protocol to use on their network. The customer
requires that no passwords be sent across the network in plain text, that the protocol be supported by the
Windows native supplicant, and that the protocol supports password changes at Layer 2.
Which protocol would meet the customer's needs?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PAP
D. EAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D

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NO.11 A user's Junos Pulse client uses 802.1X to access a wired network and is failing to authenticate. You
run a packet capture from the user's PC and notice that immediately after the client machine sends an
EAPoL-start packet, an EAP-failure packet is returned. You review the RADIUS troubleshooting logs on
the MAG Series device and do not see any authentication attempts from the user. Other users on the
same Ethernet switch are successfully authenticating.
Which device is sending the EAP-failure packet to the workstation?
A. The RADIUS server
B. The EAPoL server
C. The workstation's network adapter
D. The Ethernet switch
Answer: D

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NO.12 You have a firewall enforcer protecting resources in a data center. A user is experiencing difficulty
connecting to a protected resource.
Which two elements must exist so the user can access the resource? (Choose two.)
A. Resource access policy on the MAG Series device
B. IPsec routing policy on the MAG Series device
C. General traffic policy blocking access through the firewall enforcer
D. Auth table entry on the firewall enforcer
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 A customer has purchased a third-party switch to use for Layer 2 access with their Junos Pulse Access
Control Service. When configuring the switch on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service, the customer
does not find a make/model entry for it.
Which two actions should the customer take to make the switch work with the Junos Pulse Access Control
Service? (Choose two.)
A. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service as a standard RADIUS.
B. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service using the "Any" make/model.
C. Add the switch as a firewall enforcer.
D. Obtain and configure the RADIUS dictionary for the switch and use that vendor listing for the
make/model.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 What are two ways to access the Junos Pulse Access Control Service? (Choose two.)
A. admin GUI
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. console
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 You navigate to "UAC" > "Infranet Enforcer" > "Auth Table Mapping" in the admin GUI. You see one
policy, which is the unmodified, original default policy.
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic auth table mapping is not enabled.
B. A successful authentication attempt will result in a new authentication table entry, which will be
delivered only to the Junos enforcer protecting the network from which the user has authenticated.
C. To create a static auth table mapping, you must delete the default policy.
D. The default policy applies only to the factory-default role User.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
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Last Update: 2013-12-16

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NO.1 You are having problems establishing an IPsec tunnel between two SRX Series devices.
What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. proposal mismatch
B. antivirus configuration
C. preshared key mismatch
D. TCP MSS clamping is disabled
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 You want to allow remote users using PCs running Windows 7 to access the network using an
IPsec VPN. You implement a route-based hub-and-spoke VPN; however, users report that they are
not able to access the network.
What is causing this problem?
A. The remote clients do not have proper licensing.
B. Hub-and-spoke VPNs cannot be route-based; they must be policy-based.
C. The remote clients' OS is not supported.
D. Hub-and-spoke VPNs do not support remote client access; a dynamic VPN must be implemented
instead.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your SRX Series device has the following configuration:
user@host> show security policies
...
Policy: my-policy, State: enabled, Index: 5, Sequence number: 1
Source addresses: any Destination addresses: any
Applications: snmp
Action: reject
From zone: trust, To zone: untrust
...
When traffic matches my-policy, you want the device to silently drop the traffic; however, you
notice that the device is replying with ICMP unreachable messages instead.
What is causing this behavior?
A. the snmp application
B. the reject action
C. the trust zone
D. the untrust zone
Answer: C

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NO.4 Two SRX Series devices are having problems establishing an IPsec VPN session. One of the
devices has a firewall filter applied to its gateway interface that rejects UDP traffic.
What would resolve the problem?
A. Disable the IKE Phase 1 part of the session establishment.
B. Disable the IKE Phase 2 part of the session establishment.
C. Change the configuration so that session establishment uses TCP .
D. Edit the firewall filter to allow UDP port 500.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Users at a branch office report that they cannot reach an internal Web server. The users
connect through a single SRX Series device to reach the Web server. A security policy has been
configured on the device that allows traffic to flow between interfaces in the Trust zone.
What is causing this problem?
A. The interface on the device that connects to the Web server is not in the Trust zone.
B. The IPsec VPN connection between the users and the Web server is down.
C. There is a host inbound traffic configuration problem.
D. There is an antispam configuration problem.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You notice that the secondary node of a chassis cluster has become disabled.
What caused this behavior?
A. The fxp0 interface on the secondary device failed.
B. The control link between the devices failed.
C. A reth on the secondary device failed.
D. An IPsec tunnel between the two devices failed.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-101
Exam Name: Juniper (JNCIA-JUNOS EXAM OBJECTIVES)
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Total Q&A: 190 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 What is the default import routing for OSPF?
A.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the 3 routing table
B.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table
C.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table
D.Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the forwarding table? (Choose two)
A.The forwarding table lists each source protocol and preference for each destination
B.The forwarding table constains only active routes
C.The forwarding table is used to process transit packets
D.The forwarding table is stored in compact flash
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Which command do you use to go from the shell prompt to the CLI prompt.?
A.run cli
B.cli
C.start cli
D.edit
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are the top of hierarchy and must configure OSPF on inteface so-0/0/0 unit 100.Which two
achieve this result? (Choose two)
A.set protocols set ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.edit protocols ospf area 0 set interface so-0/0/0.100
Answer: BD

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NO.5 You have been asked to create a static route with a next hop that is not directly connected to the
router.Which configuration parameter enables the static route to accomplish this scenario?
A.resolve
B.indirect
C.next-hop
D.recursive
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which account is used to access a Junos device in a factory-default configuration?
A.root
B.admin
C.juniper
D.user
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two)
A.It must include a root password
B.It is roll back file number 50, and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50
C.It is created by issuing request system configuration rescue save
D.It is updated automatically when you commit
Answer: AC

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NO.8 What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A.root authentication
B.default gateway
C.hostname
D.management services
Answer: A

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NO.9 Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration?
[edit fireall family inet filter COS-CLASSIFIER]
user@router# show
term MANAGER {
form {
soruce-address {
192.168.200.0/25;
}
destination-address {
100.100.100.1/32;
}
}
then {
forwarding-class expedited-forwarding;
accept;
}
}
term ALL-OTHER-TRAFFIC {
then accept;
}
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/1]
user@router# show
unit 0 {
family inet {
filter {
input COS-CLASSIFIER
}
address 192.168.200.1/24;
}
}
A.behavior aggregate
B.policer
C.multifield
D.forward policy
Answer: C

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NO.10 Referring to the exhibit,
which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A.The route 192.168.1.0/25 is accepted
B.The route 192.168.2.0/25 is accepted
C.OSPF routes will be exported into RIP
D.RIP routes will be exported into OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What is the default protocol preference for OSPF internal routes?
A.10
B.15
C.150
D.160
Answer: A

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NO.12 Whitch three user authentication methos are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three)
A.RADIUS
B.CHAP
C.local user database
D.tacacs+
E.PAP
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A.snoop
B.tcpdump
C.monitor
D.tail
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the
destination IP address 192.168.1.142? (Assume that only static routes are available for the destination)
A.10.20.106.10
B.10.20.14.131
C.10.18.1.1
D.10.20.14.130
Answer: D

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NO.15 You need to control SSH, HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface.You have
decided to use a firewall filter.How should you apply the firewall filter?
A.as an outbound filter on interface fxp0
B.as an outbound filter on interface lo0
C.as an inbound filter on interface fxp0
D.as an inbound filter on interface lo0
Answer: D

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NO.16 Given the configuration and routing table in the exhibit, which routes will be advertised to OSPF
neighbors because of the demo policy?
A.192.168.0.0/16 only
B.192.168.0.0/17 only
C.192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
D.192.168.0.0/17, 192.168.50.0/24 and 192.168.51.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are two valid match criteria for a routing policy? (Choose two)
A.OSPF area ID
B.prefix list
C.port
D.time-to-live (TTL)
Answer: AB

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NO.18 You issue the ping interface t1-1/1/0 1.1.1.1 bypass-routing count 1000 rapid command
Which statement is correct?
A.The bypass-routing parameter is used to test the density on the T1 line
B.The bypass-routing parameter cannot be used on a T1 interface
C.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a host through an interface that has no route through
it
D.The bypass-routing parameter allows you to ping a local WAN interface without generating any
outbound traffic
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three protocols use UDP as a transport protocol by default? (Choose three)
A.HTTP
B.TFTP
C.DNS
D.SNMP
E.SMTP
Answer: BCD

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NO.20 What represents the binary equivalence of 207?
A.11001111
B.11101011
C.11010111
D.11010101
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-314
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Pulse Access Control, Specialist (JNCIS-AC))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-11

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NO.1 Which three settings are accessible from the serial console menu on a MAG Series device? (Choose
three.)
A. The ping command
B. Factory default reset
C. Personality image
D. License imports
E. Admin login credentials
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 A user's Junos Pulse client uses 802.1X to access a wired network and is failing to authenticate. You
run a packet capture from the user's PC and notice that immediately after the client machine sends an
EAPoL-start packet, an EAP-failure packet is returned. You review the RADIUS troubleshooting logs on
the MAG Series device and do not see any authentication attempts from the user. Other users on the
same Ethernet switch are successfully authenticating.
Which device is sending the EAP-failure packet to the workstation?
A. The RADIUS server
B. The EAPoL server
C. The workstation's network adapter
D. The Ethernet switch
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer wants to create a custom Junos Pulse configuration. Which two are required? (Choose two)
A. Connection set
B. Configuration set
C. Custom installer
D. Component set
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 You have a firewall enforcer protecting resources in a data center. A user is experiencing difficulty
connecting to a protected resource.
Which two elements must exist so the user can access the resource? (Choose two.)
A. Resource access policy on the MAG Series device
B. IPsec routing policy on the MAG Series device
C. General traffic policy blocking access through the firewall enforcer
D. Auth table entry on the firewall enforcer
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 You want to ensure that users who access the company's protected resources present a client
certificate before they are allowed to sign in.
What should you configure?
A. A certificate authentication policy that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the
user is signed in.
B. A certificate authentication policy that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted
client CA to sign in.
C. A certificate role restriction that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the user is
signed in.
D. A certificate role restriction that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted client
CA to sign in.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the cause of the error shown in the exhibit?
A. A RADIUS request is being received from a device that is not configured on the RADIUS Client page.
B. A user entered an incorrect password during RADIUS authentication.
C. A RADIUS proxy attempt failed to reach the configured proxy server.
D. The RADIUS shared secret is incorrect.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are configuring an active/passive cluster of SRX Series devices as the firewall enforcer on a MAG
Series device. Which statement is true?
A. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single serial number of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
B. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with both serial numbers of the clustered SRX Series
devices defined in the configuration.
C. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single IP address of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
D. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with the VIP of the clustered SRX Series device defined
in the configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are configuring an IPsec routing policy that will be used with a ScreenOS firewall enforcer. What
must you also configure?
A. Source IP policies on the ScreenOS device
B. ScreenOS IPsec policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C. VPN NAT traversal on the ScreenOS device
D. Source interface policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have a Junos Pulse Secure Access Service acting as an IF-MAP client, configured to federate all
user roles to a Junos Pulse Access Control Service acting as an IF-MAP Federation server. A remote user
using Junos Pulse logs in to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service; the Junos Pulse Secure Access
Service provisions a remote access session for that user.
What happens next?
A. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service redirects the user to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
for authentication
B. The Junos Pulse Access Control Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
C. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service publishes user session and role information to the IFMAP
Federation server,
D. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer is trying to decide which 802.1X inner protocol to use on their network. The customer
requires that no passwords be sent across the network in plain text, that the protocol be supported by the
Windows native supplicant, and that the protocol supports password changes at Layer 2.
Which protocol would meet the customer's needs?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PAP
D. EAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer has purchased a third-party switch to use for Layer 2 access with their Junos Pulse Access
Control Service. When configuring the switch on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service, the customer
does not find a make/model entry for it.
Which two actions should the customer take to make the switch work with the Junos Pulse Access Control
Service? (Choose two.)
A. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service as a standard RADIUS.
B. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service using the "Any" make/model.
C. Add the switch as a firewall enforcer.
D. Obtain and configure the RADIUS dictionary for the switch and use that vendor listing for the
make/model.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 You navigate to "UAC" > "Infranet Enforcer" > "Auth Table Mapping" in the admin GUI. You see one
policy, which is the unmodified, original default policy.
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic auth table mapping is not enabled.
B. A successful authentication attempt will result in a new authentication table entry, which will be
delivered only to the Junos enforcer protecting the network from which the user has authenticated.
C. To create a static auth table mapping, you must delete the default policy.
D. The default policy applies only to the factory-default role User.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is a type of firewall enforcer supported by the Junos Pulse Access Control Service.?
A. Checkpoint firewall
B. SRX Series device
C. DP sensor
D. MX Series device
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are two ways to access the Junos Pulse Access Control Service? (Choose two.)
A. admin GUI
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. console
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 What is the function of Host Checker?
A. To allow clientless access to the network
B. To restrict access to protected resources on the network
C. To scan an endpointfor compliance with security policies
D. To push a firewall policy to the endpoint's local firewall application
Answer: B

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