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2014年2月18日星期二

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Exam Code: 000-M72
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Management InfoSphere Content Collector Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What product can be migrated to ICC?
A. Commonstore
B. Email Manager
C. Records Crawler
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a user wants to configure an ICC system to manually collect additional archiving information(metadata)
for email, where is that done?
A. For P8, in Workplace forms
B. In Configuration Manager
C. For Content Manager 8, in Webi
D. On the email server
Answer: B

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NO.3 When configuring a task in the Configuration Manager, where is the task route displayed?
A. In the design pane
B. In the configuration pane
C. In the explore pane
D. In the task route pane
Answer: A

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NO.4 What objects are configured to define the item types or document classes that will be used for ICC email
Search?
A. Search collection files
B. Archive mapping and search configuration files
C. Search template and form files
D. Archive itemtype and class templates
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a Microsoft Exchange environment, the ICC E-mail Connector service must be configured to logon as
what user?
A. Local administrator
B. Email server administrator
C. ICC administrator
D. Repository administrator
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M75
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Technical Mastery Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes the role of the aggregator in a Guardium environment?
A. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that collects and consolidates information from multiple
collectors to a single Aggregation Server, allowing for reporting across the enterprise.
B. The aggregator is the Guardium appliance that communicates with mainframes.
C. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that allows a collector and a Central Policy Manager to
communicate and is required in multi-collector environments.
D. The aggregator is another name for the Central Policy Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following components collects and parses the live database traffic used to trigger a
real-time alert when a security policy rule is broken?
A. The Real Time Communications Framework
B. The Change Audit System
C. The Policy Engine
D. The Live Report Builder
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a Guardium environment where data servers can talk to the collector, what is the relationship
between the S-TAP and the collector appliance?
A. There exists no relationship since the S-TAP and the collector are incompatible Guardium entities.
B. The S-TAP reports database activity to the collector for policy management and auditing.
C. A collector can only interact with one S-TAP for policy management and auditing.
D. The collector sends the S-TAP information about its policies so it knows what traffic to intercept.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How is authentication and encryption implemented between collectors, aggregators and the Central
Policy Manager in a multi-tier Guardium environment?
A. Using an encrypted file containing the system password that must be copied to the Central Policy
Manager and collectors.
B. A System Shared Secret is specified through the GUI for each collector and the Central Policy
Manager.
C. The Central Policy Manager scans the network for Guardium collectors and performs a security
handshake with each appliance.
D. The communication between collectors and the Central Policy Manager is based on unsecured
network packets.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is Guardium's primary storage mechanism for logs and audit information?
A. Data can only be stored in flat files on the collector (one file per S-TAP).
B. Data storage can only be managed individually by each S-TAP, with audit data stored locally on the
data server in flat files.
C. Data is stored on the collector in a normalized relational database.
D. Data is stored locally on each server with an S-TAP but is managed centrally through the collector.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M239
Exam Name: IBM (WebSphere Sales Mastery Test for the Sales Professional v4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 Customer Opportunity Workshops should
A.be used to salvage a sale that is collapsing
B.be used late in the sales cycle
C.be considered and included in every Win Plan
D.not require customer participation
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is an ideal next step after the Business Process Management (BPM) whiteboarding exercise?
A.Provide the client with Industry Use Cases.
B.Ask the client for the order of the products you discussed during whiteboarding exercise.
C.Gain agreement to move forward with a Business Value Assessment (BVA) Workshop.
D.Schedule a second whiteboarding session with the IT staff.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the items below is NOT an attribute of a Use Case?
A.repeatable
B.solutions oriented
C.complex
D.industry focused
Answer: B

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NO.4 How does JBoss define a "socket".?
A.a CPU
B.the number of processor cores
C.Intel only chips
D.none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.5 It s very likely that our clients have Tomcat applications along with their Application Server
applications.What is the IBM WebSphere strategy for replacement of Tomcat installations?
A.Sellclients about WebSphere Application Servers (WAS) new strategy of Feature Packs (FEPs)
B.Sell clients WebSphere Express & WEB 2 0 Feature Pack
C.Sell clients support (or WebSphere Community Edition (WAS CE)
D.Sell WebSphere Extended Deployment (WXD) to add Quality ofService(QoS) to TomCat Applications
Answer: B

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NO.6 What value is provided by WebSphere service visibility and governance capabilities?
A.Ensures services can be found and right services are accessed.
B.Reduces costs and duplication by leveraging existing assets.
C.Meets audit requirements by tracking services and transactions.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which choiceis TRUE of WebSphere sMash?
A.use of BPM to model company carbon footprint
B.platform to reduce application server costs
C.open source version of WebSphere Application Server (WAS)
D.Application Server & Development Platform for lightweight Java/PHP applications
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements describe ways to engage customers in business driven BPM
conversations?
A.Align the business agility story to industry imperatives
B.Be focused on IBM assets rather than customer outcomes
C.Provide a way of linking a business view and an IT view of the solution
D.AandC
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement below accurately tefleds the concept of Business Process Management (BPM)?
A.BPM is a discipline designing and managing systems in a thoughtful, systematic and flexible way that
takes the whole, end-to-end business process into account
B.The use ofsoftware, such as orchestration engines and workflow tools, at run-time, to direct the
sequence of execution of software components and human activity steps in a process
C.Using software to control the conditional execution of activities based on rules and potaes
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.10 WebSphere Enterprise Service Bus (WESB) is central to the SOA evolution.Which of the following
statements describe value delivered by WESB?
A.Integrates seamlessly with the WebSphere platform
B.Delivers business-critical qualities of service.
C.Is an integrated solution for service mediation and hosting
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-037
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 216 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 A company's Service Level Agreement states that during a data restore, the Accounts Payable
department systems receive priority. Which feature expedites restoring this data?
A. Client Polling
B. Collocation by Group
C. Automatic Reconciliation
D. Dynamic Data Consolidation
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which protocols can be used on an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server on AIX?
shared memory
TCP/IP V4
TCP/IP V6
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company is mandated to retain all archived data for seven years. Which two parameters must be
added to the DEFINE COPYGROUP command to support this policy? (Choose two.)
A. RETMIN=7
B. RETVER=2555
C. MODE=ARCHIVE
D. TYPE=ARCHIVE
E. RETINIT=CREATION
Answer: BD

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NO.4 A TS3500 library has been provided for use with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) for AIX.
Which action must be performed before the library and drives can be defined by TSM?
A. install Atape device drivers, then run cfgmgr
B. install tapeutil device drivers, then run cfgmgr
C. install Atape device drivers, then run define dev for the library and each tape drive
D. install tapeutil device drivers, then run define dev for the library and each tape drive
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer needs to protect and save critical Microsoft Exchange e-mail data for three years. They
also need to protect other files, Oracle databases, and VMWare servers for at least 30 days. Which
products should the customer implement in order to protect their environments?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases, IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager for Mail
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for VCB, IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager for Databases, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases, IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager for VCB, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Exchange
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Extended Edition, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Oracle Database, IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager for Exchange, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for VMWare, IBM Tivoli Archive
Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 There are three servers in an enterprise network with valuable file system data that must be backed
up by an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) schedule. There are three file servers. How many TSM
nodes must be configured at the TSM server?
A. 1 node
B. 3 nodes
C. 5 nodes
D. 7 nodes
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true for implementing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server
environment?
A. TSM server application is not supported on Mac OS; the customer must decide on another platform to
run the TSM server.
B. TSM server application on Mac OS requires an Intel processor to operate because there is no support
for Mac PowerPC.
C. TSM server application for Mac is only supported on Mac OS V10.6 and higher; but there is no SAN
Discovery available for that platform.
D. TSM server application on Mac OS V10.6 is introduced with TSM V6.2 and provides all functionality as
a TSM server on AIX, Linux, Solaris, and Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which step is required prior to the installation process of a new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
server on AIX?
A. Confirm a web browser is set up properly and Java is enabled.
B. Ensure the tape library and drives are installed and configured completely.
C. Verify the operating system is supported and all necessary maintenance is included.
D. Ensure the network interface is available and configured with a minimum speed of 1 Gbit.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which method can recover an AIX operating system following a catastrophic disk loss?
A. recovery API
B. recovery DVD
C. full system restore using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Restore API
D. bare machine recovery using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for System Backup and Recovery
Answer: D

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NO.10 A company with a large number of clients frequently runs out of available tape drives during storage
pool backups. How can they reduce the number of mount points used?
A. simultaneous storage pool backups
B. simultaneous write during migration
C. simultaneous storage pool expiration
D. simultaneous write during reclamation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which products are needed on a remote server in order to back up client data in a virtual environment
that contains Exchange, MySQL, and QuickBooks?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive Client, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail Client
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail Client, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
for Databases
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive Client, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for VCB, IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager for Mail
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive Client, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail Client, IBM
Tivoli Storage Manager for VMWare
Answer: A

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NO.12 How is connectivity verified between an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server and TSM
client?
A. query the server from the TSM client
B. attempt a test installation of a Backup-Archive Client
C. run the system check command from the Install wizard
D. perform the network verification process in the Admin Center
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has a mixed environment of Windows 2003 and 2008 servers. Which methodology
ensures these machines are recoverable using a bare machine recovery procedure?
A. WSR
B. ASR
C. LVSA
D. Mksysb
Answer: B

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NO.14 A lab has 10 workstations and data that must be backed up on just five of the workstations. How many
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) nodes will be required to back up the workstations on the TSM server?
A. 5 nodes
B. 6 nodes
C. 7 nodes
D. 10 nodes
Answer: A

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NO.15 The Service Level Agreement was recently enhanced to allow faster restore for critical systems. There
is also a new LTO5 tape drive to be installed and a new disk subsystem already installed and to be used
for the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 environment. Which two solutions will achieve the fastest restore
for these critical systems? (Choose two.)
A. define an active data pool on tape
B. define a copy pool on file device class
C. define a copy pool with data deduplication
D. define an active data pool on tape with data deduplication
E. define an active data pool on disk for the critical client systems
Answer: AE

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NO.16 A customer has several remote locations with physical servers that contain Microsoft Outlook e-mail,
IBM DB2 databases, and CRM applications which are backed up nightly with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
Backup-Archive Client. Which product(s) can be used to restore these physical servers to virtual servers
in a disaster?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive Client
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Client, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Fastback for Mail, IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Databases, IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager FastBack for Virtual Servers
Answer: B

IBM   000-037   000-037

NO.17 According to a company's Service Level Agreement, three versions of a file must be retained after the
file is removed from the client system. Which parameter should be used when defining the backup copy
group?
A. RETVER=3
B. RETEXTRA=3
C. VEREXISTS=3
D. VERDELETE=3
Answer: D

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NO.18 In a newly installed Windows 2008 Server system, a production IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM)
server must be installed and set up. What are the first two steps in the installation process? (Choose two.)
A. Check the IBM website for supported platforms.
B. Check the TSM documentation and ReadMe files.
C. Check the IBM website for end of support information.
D. Check the operating system level and installed patches.
E. Call IBM Support to ask for open issues and known problems.
Answer: AB

IBM   000-037 original questions   000-037

NO.19 After physically verifying that all server, disk, tape, and communication hardware are installed and
operating with all internal interfaces, how is each component verified to be seen by the server operating
system as functioning properly prior to installing IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM)?
A. Ensure the GUI interface is running.
B. Run the CHECKIT command in the TSM Installation Wizard.
C. Utilize the Operating System Configuration Manager or Device Manager.
D. Run the administrative command line from the server to ensure all devices are working.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the minimum memory requirement for an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server (Windows,
Linux, AIX) environment when using deduplication?
A. 8 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 24 GB
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which three database benefits apply to the IBM DB2 database included in IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.2? (Choose three.)
A. larger database capacity
B. automatic database audits
C. automatic database mirroring
D. automatic database reorganization
E. automatic definition for dbbackup trigger
F. eliminates the need for database incremental backups
Answer: ABD

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NO.22 A new tape library with LTO5 drives has been specified to achieve faster data transfer. How are the
tape library and drives attached and configured?
A. attach the drives into the current library environment
B. define a new library with device class for the new drives
C. define a library changer and drive management classes
D. create a library setup and use the virtual library for the library management
Answer: B

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NO.23 A company is creating an archive retention server and has a requirement that archives cannot be
deleted before the retention period has passed. Which command prevents an archived object from being
deleted?
A. SET ARCHIVELOCK ON
B. SET RETENTIONLOCK ON
C. SET ARCHIVERETENTIONLOCK ON
D. SET ARCHIVERETENTIONPROTECTION ON
Answer: D

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NO.24 A company with a very busy LAN needs to conserve storage pool space by limiting the amount of data
stored. Which feature helps the company reduce network traffic during backups?
A. simultaneous write during backups
B. simultaneous write during migration
C. server-side data deduplication with cache enabled
D. client-side data deduplication with cache enabled
Answer: D

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NO.25 What are two IBM supported information sources for installing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
server? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Tivoli Wiki
B. Business Partner Knowledge Base
C. Common TSM List Server - adsm.org
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Installation Guide
E. IBM Redbook for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Technical Guide
Answer: AD

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NO.26 Which function of FastBack could assist in the event of a client disk failure?
A. FastBack Image Store
B. Disk Regenerator Utility
C. Bare Machine Recovery
D. FastBack Recovery Manager
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which parameter is used with the DEFINE COPYGROUP command to specify the number of days to
retain a backup version after that version becomes inactive due to a new active version?
A. RETMIN
B. RETVER
C. RETONLY
D. RETEXTRA
Answer: D

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NO.28 With four servers to back up, how many IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) nodes are registered on
the TSM server?
A. 2 nodes
B. 3 nodes
C. 4 nodes
D. 6 nodes
Answer: C

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NO.29 A company must limit the size and number of files stored in the storage pool. Which two features
reduce the amount of data backed up? (Choose two.)
A. Include-Exclude List
B. Journal-Based Backup
C. Client Side Backup Sets
D. Client Side Data Deduplication
E. Server Side Data Deduplication
Answer: AD

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NO.30 A new disk subsystem will be installed and integrated into the current IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
environment to achieve Service Level Agreement requirements. Which type of storage pool allows
multiple, concurrent processes to read and write to it simultaneously?
A. a pool with devclass=file
B. a pool with devclass=tape
C. a pool with devclass=dedup
D. a pool with devclass=random
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-173
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint; IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1, Application Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 A Process Owner requires that a particular process begins with three independent system tasks. The
WebSphere Lombardi Edition business process diagram and other assets should be designed for easy
readability by non-technical team members. There is also a technical goal to consume as few system
resources, such as CPU time, as possible. What is the most effective solution to meet all three
requirements?
A. Start the BPD with a split into three system lanes for the three system tasks.
B. Start the BPD with a nested BPD step containing the three system tasks.
C. Start the BPD with a simple loop step to run the three system tasks sequentially.
D. Start the BPD with a Service step containing nested Service steps for the three system tasks.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibits.
Given the exhibits, the developer has the Approve Loan Multi Instance Loop behavior configuration
completed. Does this implementation meet the requirements?
A. No, because the multiple conditions will conflict with each other and never allow the complex flow
condition to be met.
B. Yes, because the tasks are done in parallel while the condition of 2 approvers or any rejection of the
loan will meet the complex flow condition.
C. Yes, because the tasks are done in parallel while the condition of 2 approvers or any rejection of the
loan will meet the complex flow condition.
D. Yes, because the tasks are done in parallel while the condition of 2 approvers or any rejection of the
loan will meet the complex flow condition.
E. No, because a Simple Loop Type would have yielded a much more refined solution than this complex
Multi Instance Loop.
F. Yes, because the Start Quantity integer needs to change to have finite control of the loop.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 A claim review process is required to wait for external processing of a claim to complete before the
review process continues. However, the external processing of the claim may occur before or after the
claim review process is initiated. Which Intermediate Message Event options must be enabled to meet the
requirement?
A. Consume Anytime
B. Close Attached Activity
C. Durable Subscription
D. Receivable Anytime
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer wants to design a process so that it can be cancelled at any time. For implementation the
developer considers using either multiple attached Intermediate Message Events, a task that could cause
the process to flow to a Terminate End Event, or a nested BPD with a single attached Intermediate
Message Event. What is a valid reason to use a nested BPD with a single attached Intermediate Message
Event over the other options?
A. A Terminate End Event will not work if the main process contains nested BPDs.
B. There is a limit to how many Activities can have attached Intermediate Message Events.
C. A nested process with a single attached Intermediate Message Event is the only one of the three
strategies that is capable of fully meeting the requirement.
D. A nested process with a single attached Intermediate message Event is the simplest of the three
strategies to implement and maintain.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Remediate Product Delivery Failure Process requires notification from a transportation company
that the delivery failed in order to start the process. What is the most effective way to implement this in
WebSphere Lombardi Edition?
A. UCA Listener receives the notification and fires an IME before the first Activity to send the first token to
the Activity.
B. Make the first Activity a system-based Activity that is integrated with the transportation system to
receive messages and start the process.
C. Use a Start Message Event to receive the notification from a listener and begin a process instance.
D. Add an attached IME to the first Activity that listens for the notification and activates the Activity in the
participant inbox.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A home loan approval business process might remain open for days and weeks until the actual loan
rate is locked in. While the loan officer is working on the application, if the APR is updated, some of the
current calculations will become invalid and they would have to apply the new rate and recalculate the
figures they originally had. This could continue to happen until the rate is locked in and the loan is secured.
Which functional approach is the most effective in maintaining the integrity of the loan approval process
application under these circumstances?
A. Use an Intermediate Message Event to cancel the process that does not have a locked-in rate.
B. Use a Start Message Event to begin the process only if a locked-in rate is secured.
C. Use an Intermediate Timer Event to escalate all rates that are invalid to a manager for an override
decision.
D. Use an Intermediate Message Event to update process variables to be the new rates.
Answer: D

IBM test answers   000-173 questions   000-173

NO.7 A home loan business process requires an applicant? credit check be performed. The BPD has a large
ApplicantData object that contains all the applicant information. Some of this data needs to be verified by
external systems. The process interacts with one external system to verify an applicant employment
information and another system to determine their existing debts. These Activities are performed in
parallel and flow to a Join.applicant employment information and another system to determine their
existing debts. These Activities are performed in parallel and flow to a Join. The output of both Activities is
the entire ApplicantData object. What will happen with the ApplicantData object once those Activities
complete?
A. The data from both objects will cause an error inWebSphere Lombardi Edition and no data will flow to
the next Activity.
B. The data from both objects will be merged byWebSphere Lombardi Edition and the merged object will
flow to the next Activity.
C. The data that gets toWebSphere Lombardi Edition first from one of the external systems will flow to the
next Activity.
D. The data that gets toWebSphere Lombardi Edition last from one of the external systems will overwrite
whatever is there and flow to the next Activity.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An external system is configured to integrate to WLE by sending the Event Manager an XML message
via JMS. During testing, the integration is observed to fail. What would cause a failure?
A. The event message XML does not include the Process App acronym.
B. The event message XML does not include the UCA name.
C. The event message XML does not include the Snapshot name.
D. The event message XML does not include the JMS queue name.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Process instances can be started by firing a UCA associated with a Start Message Event and by using
the WLE Web API. From within a running process, an Activity can create a new and separate process
instance by using the JavaScript function startBPDWithName. What is a disadvantage of using the
startBPDWithName JavaScript function to start a BPD process instance?
A. The "Where Used" feature of the Authoring Environment won't find the JavaScript reference.
B. It would be difficult to find out if the second BPD process instance started successfully at runtime.
C. If there is an error before the first Activity is created it will not throw an exception back to the caller.
D. It would be difficult to know the instance ID of the second BPD process instance at runtime.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A simple business process allows a school teacher to submit a proposal for a children field trip. Every
proposal needs to be signed off by 3 out of 5A simple business process allows a school teacher to submit
a proposal for a children? field trip. Every proposal needs to be signed off by 3 out of 5 other teachers in
order for the trip to be funded. All the teachers perform their own research and then sign off on the
proposal. How is this implemented in WebSphere Lombardi Edition?
A. Use a Multi Instance Loop. Run in parallel with a Conditional Wait (complex) Flow Condition.
B. Use a Multi Instance Loop. Run in parallel with a Wait for All to finish (all) Flow Condition.
C. Use a Simple Loop. Set Loop maximum to a variable and create a JavaScript loop condition.
D. Use a Simple Loop. Set Loop maximum to 5 and create a JavaScript loop condition.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-030
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.2 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 202 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What is copied by the system when an escalation is duplicated?
A. All information from the existing escalation.
B. Information from the existing escalation with the exception of actions.
C. Only information from the existing escalation in the header of the escalation.
D. All information from the existing escalation, header, and escalation points but not actions and
notifications.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Application Designer function must be performed to obtain the files required to modify lookup
IDs?
A. Export System XML
B. Export Application Definition
C. Add/Modify Signature Options
D. Duplicate Application Definition
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two properties of a Start Center query can be edited by the owner of the query after it has been
saved? (Choose two.)
A. Site
B. Status
C. Clause
D. Description
E. Owner Group
Answer:C,D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Report Level Security function in the Report Administration application?
A. It allows an administrator to set the report security for a Person Group.
B. It allows an administrator to set the security for a single report on the Security tab.
C. It allows an administrator to set the security for a selected type of report or all reports.
D. It allows an administrator to set the group security for an application and all reports in the selected
application.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How can an administrator show a KPI of incidents in the NEW status?
A. Create the KPI in the Incident application.
B. Create the KPI in the Application Designer.
C. Configure the Start Center to display the KPI.
D. Run reports in the Incident application and view the KPI.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which action must be taken before an Enterprise Service can be used in an integration?
A. It must be enabled.
B. It must be activated.
C. A backup version must be saved.
D. A process revision must be made.
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which two types of objects can be defined as Recipients in a communication template? (Choose two.)
A. Role
B. User
C. Craft
D. Labor
E. Person
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which types of service can be associated with a Service Group?
A. BOTH, ACQUIRE, RENDER
B. BOTH, REQUEST, RENDER
C. BOTH, ACQUIRE, DELIVER
D. BOTH, PROVIDE, PROCURE
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which minimum data must match in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) and the record to allow IBM
Tivoli Service Request Manager V7.2 to logically select an SLA to apply to a work order or ticket record?
A. Escalation Point
B. Data on the Conditions tab
C. Data on the Service Level Agreement tab
D. Start Date, End Date, Object, Commitment
Answer:B

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NO.10 How can a current result set be changed in the Start Center?
A. click Display Settings
B. click Update Start Center
C. click the pencil icon in the portlet
D. remove the portlet and insert a new one
Answer: C

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NO.11 What can be defined when creating an escalation that is enabled when a record reaches a defined
escalation point?
A. Multiple escalation points and each escalation point can be associated with only one action and one
notification.
B. Only one escalation point per action or notification to associate with the escalation before activating the
escalation.
C. Only one escalation point per action or notification to associate with the escalation before validating the
escalation.
D. Multiple escalation points and corresponding actions or notifications can be associated with the
escalation before activating the escalation.
Answer:D

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NO.12 Which statement is true about creating a self service request?
A. Multiple assets can be selected.
B. Single CIs and single assets can be selected.
C. Multiple CIs and single assets can be selected.
D. Multiple configuration items (CIs) can be selected.
Answer:B

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NO.13 Why is the httpd.conf file edited when configuring the ability to link or attach documents in IBM Tivoli
Service Request Manager V7.2?
A. to identify the root directory for attached documents
B. to specify the type of documents that can be attached
C. to identify what documents to exclude from attachment
D. to specify the number of documents that can be attached
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement about survey questions is correct?
A. A question can only be edited if the survey status is Draft.
B. A question can be deleted while in Active or Archive status.
C. A question can be moved from Active to Archive status once it is assigned or associated to a survey.
D. A question will appear in the selection list when selecting questions to add to a survey once a question
is in Archive status.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which application is used to enable auditing on attributes?
A. Classifications
B. System Properties
C. Application Designer
D. Database Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two values are used in determining the internal priority of service desk tickets? (Choose two.)
A. Impact
B. Critical
C. Urgency
D. Indicated
E. Reported
Answer:A,C

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NO.17 Which statement is true when configuring a new toolbar icon?
A. All toolbar items must have an access key.
B. Icons can be nested by providing a subposition value for the icon.
C. A new EAR file must be built to contain any new GIF images displayed on the toolbar.
D. New toolbar images can be uploaded through the file upload capability in Application Designer.
Answer: C

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NO.18 The Search Solutions application results are not ordered by rank. Which XML file can be modified to
order results by rank?
A. library.xml
B. solrank.xml
C. solution.xml
D. searchsol.xml
Answer:D

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NO.19 When in the Actions application, what are two valid actions available for an Incident? (Choose two.)
A. Close SR
B. Apply SLA
C. Create Notification
D. Workflow Auto Reject
E. Create Response Plan
Answer:A,D

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NO.20 The importreport.cmd batch file is available to import reports in IBM Tivoli Service Request Manager
V7.2.Which statement is true about the importreport.cmd batch file?
A. It can import BIRT and CRYSTAL reports.
B. It can import only one report or library at a time.
C. It can import multiple reports and libraries at one time but only for BIRT reports.
D. It can import multiple reports and libraries at one time but only for CRYSTAL reports.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 000-172
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Program management )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 Once the discovery map is done and the process diagram view is generated, any updates made in
the process diagram view must be verified and validated in the discovery map view.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.2 A big automobile manufacturer is mapping their high level process in IBM BPM Blueprint. Select
the correct list of milestones that makes the most sense (consider both logical sequence of the
milestone, as well as the best practice naming convention). ?
A. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Ship the
car through a preferred vendor
B. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble components; 3. Perform rework if it fails quality
inspection; 4. Product Shipment
C. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Perform rework if it fails
quality inspection; 4. Ship the car through a preferred vendor
D. 1. Procurement of Components; 2. Assembly of Components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Product
Shipment
Answer: D

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NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
Select the option that best describes the process in the diagram?
A. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body.
Once the doors are assembled, the tires and bumpers are fitted to the body of the car. Quality
inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
B. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires and the bumpers to the body of the car. When all the
above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors perform inspection.
C. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. When all the above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors
perform inspection.
D. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. Quality inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
Answer: C

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NO.4 "Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met
Answer: D

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NO.5 Based on IBM BPM Blueprint best practices, while documenting activity details, the Business
Owner role is generally:
A. the business Unit Manager who runs the business
B. the person who is accountable for that particular process
C. the person who has the highest level of understanding of the process
D. the BPM lead who is responsible for implementing business process management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M45
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Info Mgmt DB2 Technical mastery v2)
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Total Q&A: 32 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What is a DB2 instance.?
A. A DB2 instance is just another name for DB2 Database.
B. A DB2 instance controls and monitors users?interactions with the Data Server.
C. A DB2 instance is a logical database manager environment where you catalog databases and set
configuration parameters.
D. DB2 does not use instances. It requires only databases to operate.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a buffer pool in DB2?
A. A buffer pool is an area of main memory that has been allocated by the database manager for the
purpose of caching table and index data as it is read from the physical media.
B. A buffer pool is a DB2 code that manages databases.
C. A buffer pool is a pool of connection buffers that increases performance of applications
connecting to the DB2 server.
D. A buffer pool is a logical storage grouping composed of one or more containers.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are some of the benefits of DB2 Express?
A. DB2 Express has affordable licensing terms with all of the core features of the DB2 engine.
B. DB2 Express is designed for development and testing. It is not used as a production database.
C. DB2 Express is faster and more powerful than the DB2 product.
D. DB2 Express is a tool that allows the DBA to quickly solve (expressly) complex issues with the DB2
version of software.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M78
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Technical Mastery Test)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-18

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NO.1 What does the MADUNLLOAD job do?
A. It loads the records into the report extractor
B. It formats the Dun & Bradstreet data to be loaded into the relationships table
C. It performs simple data cleansing, like removing blanks and zeros
D. It loads UNL files into the database for Member, Entity, Audit, and Relationship data
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a contributor of member records to the Hub.?
A. Attribute Segment
B. Definitional Source
C. Informational Source
D. Consuming Source
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the view of a member or entity in Inspector called?
A. Enterprise View
B. Composite View
C. Consolidated View
D. Most Current View
Answer: B

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