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Exam Code: HT0-201
Exam Name: CompTIA (CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.7 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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NO.9 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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NO.10 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.13 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.14 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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NO.17 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.18 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.19 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.21 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.22 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.25 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.28 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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NO.29 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.30 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JK0-701
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C A+ Essentials (2009 Edition) Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 491 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 In the laser printing process, which of the following is true?
A. A wax-based substance is melted and applied directly to the media.
B. Toner is applied to a photoconductor and transferred to the media.
C. Heat is applied to heat-sensitive media to create an image.
D. Toner is sprayed to the media.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed
some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted? FIRST?
A. Reset the CMOS
B. Rollback to a restore point
C. Boot into Safe Mode
D. Reconfigure the BIOS
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the
external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem?
A. Upgrade the BIOS.
B. Release the LCD cutoff switch.
C. Toggle the WiFi switch.
D. Toggle the Fn key.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of
which of the following classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technician is repairing a keyboard issue, in which the keys are not typing anything within document
editing software. After Questioning the user, the technician discovers that the user was eating lunch while
typing the document. The technician comes to the conclusion that liquid was spilled onto the keyboard.
According to the troubleshooting theory, which of the following would be the NEXT step to follow?
A. Ask the user open-ended Questions.
B. Make closing notes of the repair.
C. Replace the keyboard with a new keyboard.
D. Verify the system functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A technician downloads an updated version of the driver for a sound card in Windows XP. After
extracting the driver, how would the technician update the driver?
A. Device Manager> expand 'Sound, video and game controllers'>double click on the
name of the sound card> Troubleshoot'
B. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Update Drivers>double click on 'Sound Card'
C. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Sound Devices > 'Update Driver'
D. Device Manager>Driver tab> Update Driver> Double click on the name of the sound card under 'Sound,
video and game controllers'
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following wireless network features grants the ability to select which devices connect to a
wireless network based on a device's hardware address?
A. WPA encryption
B. MAC filtering
C. NAT translation
D. SSID broadcasting
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling
process?
A. Heatsink
B. Fan
C. Liquid cooling system
D. Thermal compound
Answer: D

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NO.9 A PC is having its PSU replaced and the new PSU has a connector that is too large for the
motherboard's socket. Which of the following is needed to solve this issue?
A. The PC needs a NLX to ATX adapter.
B. The PC needs a 26-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
C. The PC needs a 24-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
D. The PC needs an AT-to-ATX adapter.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Every time the computer starts a technician receives a message saying that the computer case has
been opened. Which of the following can be disabled in the BIOS to prevent this message from
appearing?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Intrusion detection
C. WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following memory types has a clock speed of 400MHz?
A. PC133
B. PC2700
C. PC3200
D. PC10600
Answer: C

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NO.12 When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST
approach?
A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help.
B. Ask open-ended Questions to narrow the scope of the problem.
C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain.
D. Ask focused Questions that lead the customer with yes or no Answers.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound?
A. VGA
B. S-Video
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer: D

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NO.14 A CRT monitor is flickering very rapidly, making it very uncomfortable to view. This can be corrected
by:
A. Adjusting the refresh rate.
B. Adjusting the dot pitch.
C. Degaussing the monitor.
D. Adjusting the resolution.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which
of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this?
A. Bluetooth card
B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard
C. 802.11n WiFi card
D. Cellular WAN card
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a
company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month?
A. Laser
B. Thermal
C. Inkjet
D. Dot Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.17 802.11n has the potential to support up to:
A. 11Mbps.
B. 20Mbps.
C. 54Mbps.
D. 100Mbps.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following commands is used to bring up the interface that allows a
technician to edit startup services and applications?
A. msinfo32
B. cmd
C. dxdiag
D. msconfig
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following Windows Vista versions can be installed on a system with
512MB of RAM and a 40GB HDD?
A. Home Basic
B. Home Premium
C. Ultimate
D. Business
Answer: A

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NO.20 A technician is installing Windows Vista onto a new computer locally. Which of the following describes
the method the technician would MOST likely use?
A. Floppy
B. DVD
C. Blu-Ray
D. PXE
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer's image stored on a hard drive?
A. Factory Recovery Partition
B. OEM Version
C. Recovery CD
D. Network Install
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following IP ranges is Class C?
A. 192.0.0.0-223.255.255.255
B. 128.0.0.0-191.255.255.255
C. 1.1.1.1-126.255.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0-255.255.255.0
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following media types is MOST affected by the RPM rating?
A. SDD
B. Flash
C. Tape
D. HDD
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following Windows utilities will identify issues with drivers and programs running under
Windows XP?
A. System Information
B. Hardware Compatibility List
C. Dr. Watson
D. Program Compatibility Wizard
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following connector types is used on CAT5e cable?
A. RJ-45
B. ST
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following broadband technologies provides the FASTEST bandwidth speeds?
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. Fiber
Answer: D

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NO.27 A computer fails POST with 1 long, and 2 short beeps. Which of the following components has MOST
likely failed?
A. Sound card
B. Power supply
C. NIC
D. Video card
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation?
A. Windows Key + L
B. CTRL + ALT + Delete
C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace
D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape
Answer: B

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NO.29 A technician has determined that the primary hard drive has failed and the defective hard drive has
been replaced. According to the troubleshooting process, which of the following steps would come
NEXT?
A. Document the setting.
B. Establish a probable cause.
C. Verify full system operation.
D. Question the user.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following connectors are used for musical equipment?
A. DVI
B. MIDI
C. 6-pin mini-DIN
D. HDMI
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CA1-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Beta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases.Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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NO.8 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc.
You want the clients and servers in your organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents
eavesdropping and tampering of data on the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.16 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.18 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.19 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.20 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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Exam Code: SG0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
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Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-12

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NO.1 Which of the following is the appropriate tool for an administrator to use to provide a file
system to a host with assigned storage LUNs?
A. LBA
B. LVM
C. VBA
D. FBA
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator has configured storage for a server, and would like to ensure that other
systems do not accidentally gain access to this server's storage by plugging into the system's port.
Which of the following would provide a solution?
A. RCSN
B. Port zoning
C. Virtual fabric
D. WWN zoning
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following replication types is the FASTEST?
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Incremental
D. Differential
Answer: A

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NO.4 In order to protect the storage area network, a new firewall has been installed at the
company's datacenter. Once installed, all servers lost the remote storage and crashed. Which of the
following will restore communication between the servers' network and the SAN?
A. UDP port 6320 must be permitted between the two networks.
B. TCP port 3260 must be permitted between the two networks.
C. All servers must be configured to use hardware iSCSI initiators.
D. All servers must rescan the LUNs which have been masked by the firewall
Answer: B

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NO.5 When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following
replication features should be utilized?
A. Clone
B. Snapshot
C. Semi-synchronous Replication
D. Consistency Group
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is a benefit of tiered storage?
A. Lowers cost over time
B. Provides redundancy to all clients
C. Increases physical security
D. Enables disaster recovery
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following defines the difference between fibre channel switch fabric and fibre
channel arbitrated loop technologies?
A. Bandwidth vs.I/O
B. B. Speed vs. Distance
C. Shared vs. Dedicated
D. Coax vs. Fiber
Answer: C

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NO.8 When deploying a LUN from a storage array to a host over a SAN, which of the following steps
must be done for the host to see the LUN? (Select TWO).
A. The switches must be zoned to allow the host to see the array
B. The host must authenticate against the array for SCSI access
C. The host must enable the Persistent Binding Function on its HBA
D. The switches must be zoned to allow the host to see the LUN
E. The array must be configured to expose the LUN to the host
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which of the following RAID levels will allow an administrator to lose only two drives within
the RAID group and not lose data?
A. RAID 1+0
B. RAID A
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.10 A host-based logical volume manager is used to migrate data from an old array to a newer
one.
The storage administrator has completed the physical connections, zoning, and masking, but the
storage volumes from the new array are still not visible on the host. Which of die following steps
should be performed NEXT?
A. Change the HBA driver topology configuration
B. Replace failed HBA
C. Run fcping
D. Bus rescan
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HT0-102
Exam Name: CompTIA (HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 A programmable HVAC thermostat can be accessed remotely to:
A. warm of a high heating bill
B. light up the thermostat in dark hallways
C. power the HVAC upon the loss of AC power
D. allow the panel to control the temperature settings of the thermostat
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

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NO.4 One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection?
A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following tools is used to fasten a connector to a cable end?
A. Crimper
B. Wire strippers
C. Lineman's pliers
D. Punch-down tool
Answer: A

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NO.6 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following devices is required by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
for registered alarm connections in which alarm panels are connected to a telephone line?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-21
C. RJ-31X
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following terms describes a point or group of points in an alarm system?
A. Zone
B. Area
C. Perimeter
D. Demarcation
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices?
A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter
Answer: B

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NO.10 An integrated home automation system is being designed to use a personal computer equipped
with a single IEEE 1394 port. What is the total number of devices that additional ports are
needed?
A. 23
B. 43
C. 63
D. 83
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following does NOT need to be documented for a control system?
A. System diagram
B. Equipment list
C. Configuration of equipment
D. Equipment specifications
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following devices will prevent the loss of functionality during a sudden alternating
current (AC) power outage?
A. Dedicated circuit
B. Surge protector
C. Transfer switch
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following authorities establish the National Electrical Code (NEC) as legal
regulations?
A. Local fire marshal
B. Local governments
C. Building contractors
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is a support that is mounted to the backboard and used to manage cables?
A. Conduit
B. 66 block
C. D-ring
D. Cable tray
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following is a requirement of a home automation system that allows the system to
be set up for out of band remote maintenance from an off-site location?
A. Dial-in modem
B. Local terminal
C. Infrared remote
D. Wireless access point
Answer: A

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NO.16 In a wireless security system, the controller should monitor each transmitter for:
A. high interference
B. low radiation level
C. high humidity
D. low battery
Answer: D

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NO.17 The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as:
A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home?
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL
Answer: C

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NO.19 The design of a system requires a wall-mounted control device that works with a RS-485 based
control processor. Control needs to be available at 16 locations. The interface should allow the
technician to customize the menu options with icons and text associated with each of the push
buttons. Which of the following meets the design criteria?
A. Web pad
B. LCD keypad
C. If remove control
D. Touch screen controller
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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Exam Code: PK1-003
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-09

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NO.1 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.8 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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NO.9 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.12 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.13 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.16 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.17 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.20 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.21 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

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NO.22 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.26 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.28 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.29 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

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NO.30 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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Exam Name: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
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NO.1 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

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NO.4 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

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NO.5 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.12 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

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NO.14 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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NO.15 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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NO.17 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.18 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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