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Exam Code: FN0-100
Exam Name: Foundry Network (Foundry Networks CNE)
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Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which Foundry CLI command is used to provide privileged user mode?
A. access
B. enable
C. super-user
D. config t
Answer: B

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NO.2 What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C

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NO.3 An OSPF interface configured to be passive will perform which of the following?
A. send and receive OSPF updates
B. receive but not forward OSPF updates
C. will not send or receive OSPF updates
D. will not receive but forward OSPF updates
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Foundry CLI command should be used to add an unencrypted community
string?
A. snmp-server community private rw
B. snmp-server community 0 private rw
C. snmp-server community 1 private rw
D. snmp-server community clr private rw
Answer: B

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NO.5 The show configuration command on a Foundry device will show the running
config.
A. T
B. F
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Foundry SLB predictor uses a percentage distribution?
A. round robin
B. weighted
C. least connections
D. delay
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which broadcast and pruning multicast protocol delivers IP multicast data to its
intended receivers? (Select all that apply)
A. PIM
B. ICMP
C. DVMRP
D. IGMP
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 What does a Foundry ACL ID identify?
A. An ACL as standard or extended
B. Number of entries.
C. A collection of individual ACL entries
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are true regarding the highest priority queue on Foundry
chassis devices?
A. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
B. qosp0 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
C. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry
priority levels 0 and 1.
D. qosp3 ?This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry
priority levels 6 and 7.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Foundry trunking groups on L3 routers load share based on destination IP/IPX
address.
A. T
B. F
Answer: A

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NO.11 The appletalk echo protocol (AEP) is equivalent to which IP protocol?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: D

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NO.12 Foundry route health injection feature supports health checks for which of the
following?
A. All TCP traffic
B. All TCP and UDP traffic
C. HTTP only
D. HTTP, POP3, and SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which routing protocol is used on the Internet to route traffic between Autonomous
Systems and to maintain loop-free routing?
A. OSPF
B. IBGP
C. BGP4
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Foundry CLI command is used to copy the system image from the secondary
flash area to the primary?
A. copy flash primary
B. copy slot1 primary
C. copy secondary primary
D. copy flash flash primary
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval a bridge will wait for receipt of
a hello packet before initiating a topology change?
A. priority
B. forward delay
C. maximum age
D. hello time
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A

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NO.18 What feature allows a switch to detect and switch web traffic to a local cache server
within the network?
A. http header hashing
B. SSL session ID switching
C. transparent cache switching
D. cache route optimization
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following commands will correctly configure a Foundry Layer 3
Switch to learn routes from all neighbors except 192.168.1.170?
A. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
B. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 1024 permit any BigIron(config-rip-router)#
neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
C. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor deny 192.168.1.170 BigIron(config-rip-router)#
neighbor 1024 permit any
D. BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 2 deny 192.168.1.170
BigIron(config-rip-router)# neighbor 1024 permit any
Answer: D

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NO.20 Exhibit:
The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no
backup designated router (BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which
routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B

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Exam Name: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 10)
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Total Q&A: 191 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user's desktop
and the filename must contain that person's name along with the current date (without additional user
input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; " " ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; " " ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains "John Q. Adams", what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about windows in a FileMaker database? (Choose two.)
A. A given user may have a maximum of 100 windows open concurrently.
B. Creation of a new window will activate an OnLayoutLoad script trigger.
C. On the Windows platform, only the currently active window can be maximized.
D. The Adjust Window script step can be used to move a window to a location specified by a calculation
formula.
Answer: BC

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NO.5 According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which two statements are true in a FileMaker Pro 10 database containing scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple changes to multiple scripts can be saved using one operation.
B. Edits to a script can be undone by closing the script's Edit Script window without saving changes.
C. Running a script while other scripts have unsaved changes will cause all unsaved changes to be
reverted.
D. Closing the Manage Scripts window will prompt the user to save changes to the order or grouping of
scripts.
Answer: AB

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NO.7 What is the maximum size of a calculation formula, including text and numbers, any referenced fields,
operators, functions, and parentheses?
A. 1,024 characters
B. 8,000 characters
C. 16,000 characters
D. 30,000 characters
E. 32,000 characters
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C

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NO.9 A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two techniques can be used to import a table and its record data from one FileMaker Pro file
to another using FileMaker Pro Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Import Records > File command and choose New Table as the Target.
B. Copy and paste a table occurrence from one relationship graph to the other.
C. Use the File Migration Tool from Solution Options in the Developer Utilities dialog.
D. Use the Import button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog to import the tables field
definitions, then use the Import Records > File command to import the record data.
E. Use the Copy button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the source database, then
use the Paste button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the target database.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 10 Advanced?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
E. 999
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three must be enabled when using FileMaker Server 10 and Web publishing on 64-bit editions
of the Windows operating system? (Choose three.)
A. ISAPI filters
B. ISAPI extensions
C. Deployment Assistant
D. Windows Addressing Mode to 32-bit only
E. Enable 32-bit mode in FileMaker Server Admin Console
F. Application pooling compatibility with 32-bit applications
Answer: ABF

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NO.13 Which ports must be open when FileMaker Server 10 is on one machine to provide just database
services and full administration console functionality?
A. 5003,16000,16001
B. 5006, 16000,16001
C. 80, 5003,16000,16001
D. 80, 5006,16001,16004
E. 591, 5006,16001,16004
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Using FileMaker Server 10, which two groups of ports must be open to provide database services,
web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console? (Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which statement is true when a script is installed on a window using the Install OnTimer Script step?
A. The script can not operate on hidden windows.
B. The window must be closed to uninstall the script.
C. The script will run on any new window created from the initial window.
D. In a window with more than one installed script, the scripts will be performed in the order in which they
were installed.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph,
which two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = "NY".
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Navigate to a layout based on the
Products table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose "NY" under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and
finally Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC

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NO.18 Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a "PDF Form" document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF

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NO.19 What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which two does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include? (Choose
two.)
A. user account Saved Finds criteria
B. ODBC driver information for external data sources
C. the file path lists for external FileMaker data sources
D. the IP addresses of the servers hosting external ODBC data sources
E. account names and passwords for the FileMaker file(s) being analyzed
F. user names and passwords assigned to DSNs used for external data sources
Answer: CF

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NO.21 Which three does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include?
(Choose three.)
A. a script triggers section
B. conditional formatting settings
C. object line, fill and effect settings
D. resizable layout object anchoring settings
E. the visibility status of fields in Table View
F. Text, Number, Date, and Time field formatting settings
Answer: BDE

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NO.22 What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.23 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.24 What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which two statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips will function in Find mode.
B. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object.
C. Tooltip text can only incorporate field data that is stored.
D. A tooltip defined by the formula = $tooltip can only display its message when a script is running (or
paused).
E. Tooltips can only be created or modified using FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced, though they will function in
a file opened by FileMaker Pro 10.
Answer: AB

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NO.26 A script executed by a FileMaker Server schedule running on a Windows server exports a group of
records to a tab-delimited file. The resulting file needs to be saved to the FileMaker Server Documents
folder and the filename must contain a current timestamp appended to the word orders_ (e.g.
orders__02042009065656.tab).
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at:
C:\Users\Administrator\Documents.
B. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at: C:\Program
Files\FileMaker\FileMaker Server\Data\Documents.
C. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
D. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a calculation field with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
E. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( ServerDocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentServerTimeStamp );
"0123456789") & ".tab".
Answer: BC

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NO.27 Which five operating systems are supported for FileMaker Server 10 and FileMaker Server 10
Advanced? (Choose five.)
A. Mac OS X 10.5.4
B. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
C. Mac OS X Server 10.4.11
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows Vista Business SP1
F. Windows NT Server SP4
G. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition SP2
H. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition SP1
Answer: ACEGH

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NO.28 Which two statements are true if two windows in a FileMaker Pro 10 database display records based
on the same layout? (Choose two.)
A. If a record is being edited in one window, it cannot be edited in the other window.
B. A find performed in one window will be available as a Recent Find in the other window.
C. If a new record is created in one window, it will become the active record in both windows.
D. If a custom menu set is installed in one window, it will become the active menu set in the other window
as well.
Answer: AB

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Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script
A completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D

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NO.30 What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what does the number next to the red exclamation mark indicate?
There are three problem events recorded.
A. There are three problems.
B. There are three potential problems.
C. There are three warning events recorded.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the yellow double arrow indicate when monitoring within the Dashboard > System Health >
View components pane?
A. agent issue
B. low performance
C. alert
D. warning
Answer: D

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NO.3 A View administrator wants to programmatically determine Desktop entitlements for a user in a script.
What is the correct syntax to query user data with vdmadmin?
A. vdmadmin -U domainuser
B. vdmadmin -U -u domainuser
C. vdmadmin -U: domainuser
D. vdmadmin -User domainuser
Answer: B

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NO.4 In a new floating linked-clone pool, a desktop shows a status of Provisioned.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is powered off and has been created, but needs to be customized.
B. The desktop is powered on and has been created, but needs to be customized.
C. The desktop is powered off and has been created and customized.
D. The desktop is powered on and has been created and customized.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator needs to update a single desktop in a pool and prohibit the user from logging in to the
desktop while updating it.
After going to the Inventory page of the pool and selecting the desktop, what must the administrator do to
ensure the user is unable to log in to the desktop?
A. choose Enter Maintenance Mode
B. choose Send Message
C. choose Disconnect Session
D. choose Logoff Session
Answer: A

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NO.6 A user reports being unable to log in to his remote desktop. The administrator needs to identify the root
cause of this issue.
Which two fields in View Administrator will assist with identifying the state of the desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Remote Session > Session State
B. Help Desk > Session State
C. Desktops > Status
D. Problem Desktops > Status
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 View Administrator shows a desktop pool with 100 remote and 20 local sessions displayed.
What does this indicate.?
A. The pool has 20 sessions available for local users.
B. The pool has 120 users with sessions.
C. The pool has 120 sessions available for users.
D. The pool has 100 active sessions and 20 sessions available for users.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In a Dedicated pool, a desktop shows a status of Configuration Error.
What does this indicate?
A. The display protocol is not enabled.
B. The display protocol is enabled.
C. The pool is not enabled.
D. The pool is enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Startup.
Which two conditions does this status indicate? (Choose two.)
A. The display protocol has started.
B. The View Agent has started.
C. The View Agent is still starting.
D. The display protocol is still starting.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 How can an administrator inform a pool user that a recompose will take place?
A. click on Users and Groups > select pool > click Send Message
B. click on Pools > select their pool > click Sessions tab > highlight user > click Send Message
C. click on Pools > highlight their pool > click More Commands > choose Send Message
D. click on Global Settings > click Edit > check Display warning before recompose > enter a message
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which third-party tool can be used to store event data after it has been cycled off of the Dashboard?
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Crystal Reports
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. MySQL
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator goes to View Administrator on the Connection Server CS1 and looks through the
Events to see if there are any errors. The administrator sees the following error:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Desktop1: Customization error due to no network communication
between the View agent and the Connection Server.
According to the View Administrator Guide, what are two recommended troubleshooting steps that can be
taken to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet CS1 4001
B. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet Desktop1 4001
C. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup Desktop1
D. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup CS1
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which three error states are reported by View Administrator in the Problem Desktops tab? (Choose
three.)
A. persistent disk offline
B. replica not responding
C. stuck in provisioning
D. report ready, but not accepting connections
E. powered on but not responding
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
A user is experiencing difficulties connecting to her desktop.
Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the user being unable to log in?
The desktop is suspended.
A. The administrator is already logged in.
B. The user is already logged in.
C. The desktop is off.
Answer: B

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NO.15 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and sees a red arrow beside the Transfer
Server. The administrator verifies that the Transfer Server can be pinged by the DNS name. The arrow
beside the Transfer Server in the Dashboard remains red.
What does the red arrow indicate in this situation?
A. The Transfer Server service is down.
B. The Transfer Server web service is down.
C. The Transfer Server is powered off.
D. The Transfer Server repository is offline.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Provisioning.
What does this status most likely indicate?
A. The desktop is being customized by Sysprep.
B. The desktop is being customized by Quickprep.
C. The desktop is being created by the vCenter Server.
D. The desktop is being validated by the Security Server.
Answer: C

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NO.17 In the View Administrator Dashboard, what does a gray question mark beside Other Components -
Domains indicate?
A. The domain is Active Directory 2008-based.
B. The domain is LDAP-based.
C. The domain is Active Directory 2000-based.
D. The domain is Kerberos-based.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that under Problem Desktops,
there is one desktop identified as Agent Unreachable.
What does this desktop status indicate?
A. The desktop server service is disabled.
B. The desktop messenger service is unable to send messages to the Agent.
C. The desktop firewall service is blocking ports needed by the Agent.
D. The desktop network service is disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator accesses the View Administrator Console Dashboard and sees a Desktop with the
error:
Customization operation timed out
What is the most likely cause of the error?
A. The datastore containing the virtual machine has been formatted for NTFS.
B. The datastore containing the virtual machine has the block size set too high.
C. The datastore containing the virtual machine has an NFS mount.
D. The datastore containing the virtual machine has run out of space.
Answer: D

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NO.20 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that a desktop is Checked
Out.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is locked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
B. The desktop is unlocked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
C. The desktop is locked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
D. The desktop is unlocked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Netbackup 6.5 is configured with a disk storage unit with staging enabled. Some of the images in the
disk storage unit have been successfully duplicated. The disk storage unit becomes full. What happens
next?
A.Duplicated images are purged until the disk storage unit can hold the next backup.
B.Duplicated images are purged until 98% below the disk capacity has been reached.
C.Duplicated images are purged until the high water mark has been reached.
D.Duplicated images are purged until the lower water mark has been reached.
Answer:D

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NO.2 When a restore is performed to client A, which process will go active when the restore starts?
A.tar
B.bpbkar
C.bpbkar32
D.tar32
Answer:D

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NO.3 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.within the EMM database
B.on the EMM server in binary format
C.on the master server in binary format
D.within the master server's Sybase database
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid snapshot-based restores?
A.Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B.True image restore with move detection
C.Disk staging storage unit restore
D.Instant Recovery
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which backup method can restore individual files from a raw disk backup?
A.Copy on write snapshot
B.Mirror snapshot
C.FlashBackup
D.True image restore
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which two commands can be used to check and update the robot inventory? (Choose two.)
A.vmcheck
B.bpupdate
C.vmchange
D.vmupdate
E.vmcheckxxx
Answer:D E

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NO.7 What is updated during a NetBackup installation on Windows 2003?
A.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\hosts
B.C:\WINDOWS\System32\drivers\etc\services and Windows Registry
C.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and C:\\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\hosts
D.C:\WINDOWS\System\drivers\etc\services and Windows Control Panel
Answer:B

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NO.8 A restore must be performed. You have gone into the Backup Archive and Restore GUI and are trying
to view the valid images for clientA but the following error occurs: WARNING: Server does not contain any
valid images. Which options may be incorrectly configured? (Choose three.)
A.Source client for restores
B.Destination client for restores
C.Server to use for backups and restores
D.Media server for restore
E.Policy types for restore
Answer:A C E

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NO.9 Which actions can you take when performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003
system? (Choose two.)
A.You can deselect Veritas Snapshot Provider.
B.You can change the default port numbers.
C.You can only add up to five media servers.
D.You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
E.You can select to install the EMM database server.
Answer:A B

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NO.10 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer:A C E

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NO.11 Consider the following: Your environment has one master server and six SAN media servers. The
systems use Shared Storage Option (SSO) to share ten tape drives on a single robot. Backups run at
night to various media servers and you want to duplicate all backups during the day. All duplications must
run on the master server to free media server resources. What would you do to allow the master server to
perform all duplications?
A.Clear Drive Duplication Enabled in the Device Manager for SAN media servers.
B.In the Vault policy, set Alternate Server Duplicate Disable for SAN media servers.
C.Set an offsite volume pool for master server access only.
D.Set an alternate read server in the Vault Management Properties tab.
Answer:D

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NO.12 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation? (Choose
three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer:A C D

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NO.13 Which report provides a list of media that were used in the last five hours?
A.Tape Lists
B.Tape Written
C.Tape Contents
D.Tape Summary
E.Status of Backups
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 6.5?
(Choose two.)
A.All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B.All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C.A media server may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
D.A client may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
E.A master server may be one major revision level lower than a media server.
Answer:C D

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NO.15 NetBackup Operations Manager provides some useful utilities to help manage the NOM database.
Which command is used to launch the utility to perform NOM maintenance?
A.NOMadmincmd
B.NOMadmin
C.NOMcmd
D.NOMadm
Answer:B

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NO.16 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer:B

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NO.17 What is the name of the Netbackup service running after installation of a Windows client?
A.NetBackup Windows Service
B.NetBackup Client Service
C.NetBackup Remote Service
D.NetBack File System Service
Answer:B

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NO.18 You have just installed a NetBackup 6.5 master server and the EMM server is on a different machine.
In addition to bprd, bpjobd, and nbpem, which other processes would be running on the master server if
the installation was successful?
A.bpbrm, nbrb
B.bpdbm, nbemm
C.bpdbm, nbjm
D.bpbrm, nbjm
Answer:C

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.A master server may use more than one EMM server.
D.A master server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which factors affect the physical expiration of media? (Choose two.)
A.Date
B.Media full
C.Number of mounts
D.Media being moved to a new server
E.Changing the backup retention level
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: ST0-47W
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas NetBackup 6.5 for Windows (STS))
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 In a customer's Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment, the Master Server is host A, the Enterprise Media
Manager (EMM) Server is host B, the only configured Media Server is host C, and Client systems are host
D through host Z. The customer has encountered a problem performing a standard restore operation of
host D from the tape on which the backup was written and was directed by Symantec support to enable
debug logging for the bpbrm process.
On which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 system would this debug log be enabled?
A. NetBackup Master Server (host A)
B. NetBackup EMM (host B)
C. NetBackup Media Server (host C)
D. NetBackup Client (host D)
Answer: C

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NO.2 On which two types of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 servers can the Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) be
installed? (Select two.)
A. Master Server
B. Media Server
C. Administration Server
D. Media and Device Server
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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NO.4 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 client system requests a user-initiated backup by sending a request to port
13720 of the configured Master Server system.
Which Veritas NetBackup service or process receives this request?
A. bpdbm
B. bprd
C. nbpem
D. nbjm
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the first tier?
A. Media Server
B. NetBackup Operations Manager (NOM) Server
C. Enterprise Client
D. Master Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 The nbproxy process communicates and queries which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 component?
A. Enterprise Media Manager
B. Database Manager
C. Robotic Control Service
D. Automatic Volume Recognition daemon
Answer: B

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NO.8 An environment already has two robots configured, and the NetBackup Administration Console is being
used to configure a new IBM TLD-type robot. Which name is given to the new robot by default?
A. TLD(2)
B. ROBOT_3
C. TLD(3)
D. IBM.TLD.3
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the nbproxy process?
A. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the client.
B. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and PBX.
C. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the Media Server.
D. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and single-threaded processes.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

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NO.11 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with
50Gb of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the nbdb_ping command in Veritas NetBackup 6.5?
A. to determine if a Media Server has connectivity to the EMM database
B. to check the health and status of the Sybase ASA database
C. to create a roll-back checkpoint in the NetBackup Binary database
D. to run a simple handshake test between the Master and all Media Servers
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about the PBX communication facility used in Veritas NetBackup?
(Select two.)
A. PBX is used when legacy (pre-6.x) processes need to communicate with new (6.x) NetBackup
processes.
B. PBX is used for all tape library command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
C. PBX is used for NetBackup 6.0 and above for all interprocess communication.
D. PBX is used for all disk array snapshot facility command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
Answer: AC

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NO.17 Which statement is true about Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Data Classifications?
A. They control the execution of backups.
B. They schedule client backups.
C. They can be used to bias the deletion of backup images.
D. They are service level agreements.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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NO.19 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.20 The backup of a particular client system fails with a status code 49 - 'Client did not start'.
For which process do you need to create and check the debug log?
A. bptm
B. bprd
C. bpbkar
D. bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.22 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.23 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.24 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.25 The customer runs the Images on Media report to obtain a list of backup images that are on the tape
volume XYZ001.
Which NetBackup Master Server service/process maintains the catalog from which this report is derived?
A. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
B. NetBackup Service Layer
C. NetBackup Job Manager
D. NetBackup Database Manager
Answer: D

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NO.26 The backup of a client is not running at the expected time, based upon a specific backup policy and
schedule.
Which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service/process is responsible for the worklist that contains the entry for this
job and for the initiation of the job, based upon the 'due' time of the job?
A. NetBackup Policy Execution Manager
B. NetBackup Job Manager
C. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
D. NetBackup Backup and Restore Manager
Answer: A

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NO.27 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB)interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.28 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.29 Where can you find and access a full list of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 product documentation?
A. under the Help tab in any window of the NetBackup NOM console
B. in the Help (Windows) or hlp (UNIX/Linux) directories on the Master Server
C. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
D. on any host that has NetBackup component(s) loaded, through the global Help function
Answer: C

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NO.30 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: ST0-057
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 On which three operating systems does NetBackup support running the PureDisk 6.5 deduplication
option? (Select three.)
A. Windows Server 2000
B. Solaris 9
C. Linux
D. HP/UX
E. IBM AIX
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 From which two optional locations can PureDisk retrieve user information? (Select two.)
A. Internal LDAP
B. Active Directory
C. System Password File
D. PureDisk Authority Directory
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which is an optional component that can be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. NetBackup export engine
D. controller
Answer: C

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NO.4 When installing a PureDisk agent, unless you specify a location or department, where does PureDisk
place the client agent?
A. Central SPA location and department
B. Default Agents
C. Unknown location and Unknown department
D. Unknown Agents
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is created in PureDisk by using an MD5 algorithm?
A. fingerprint
B. data object
C. workflow object
D. segment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Multiple nodes have been configured with the Topology Wizard.
Which script will push out the software to these nodes?
A. install_newStoragePool.sh
B. enc_topology.sh
C. update_topology.sh
D. add_onNode.sh
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which data has the default size of 128 KB?
A. data object
B. fingerprint
C. segment
D. workflow object
Answer: C

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NO.8 By default, a storage pool with a single metabase engine is limited to how many clients?
A. 256
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 2048
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which service can be added to an existing storage pool to increase the amount of data stored in the
environment?
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. metabase server
D. repository manager
E. workflow controller
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which component must be installed within a PureDisk storage pool?
A. workflow controller
B. CIFS interface
C. NetBackup export engine
D. content router
Answer: D

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NO.11 When backing up a new file, which information is sent that describes that file's attributes?
A. metadata
B. path object
C. data object
D. segment data
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which feature does PureDisk enable by using a CIFS interface?
A. direct access to backup data
B. NetBackup integration
C. data security and encryption
D. central management
Answer: A

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NO.13 How many terabytes of data in PureDisk 6.5 can be stored per content router in the storage pool?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.14 At which component level does PureDisk provide for bandwidth efficiency by deduplicating data?
A. client
B. storage pool authority
C. content router
D. metabase engine
Answer: A

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NO.15 By default, where does PureDisk provide for data security by encrypting the data?
A. content router
B. storage pool authority
C. client
D. metabase engine
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which key feature of PureDisk 6.5 depends on the client communicating with the storage pool to
determine whether data is already stored?
A. data security and encryption
B. global deduplication
C. fast access to backup data
D. central management
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which version of Veritas Volume Manager is included with a PureDisk 6.5 installation?
A. 4.0
B. 4.1
C. 5.0
D. 5.1
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which application is newly supported in version 6.5 of PureDisk?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
B. Microsoft Exchange 2007
C. Oracle 11i DBMS
D. Microsoft Message Queue
Answer: B

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NO.19 On which component in the PureDisk architecture does grouping clients with similar data improve
deduplication?
A. storage pool authority
B. metabase server
C. content router
D. repository manager
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two components can be added to increase the size of the PureDisk storage pool? (Select two.)
A. metabase engine
B. content router
C. client agents
D. NetBackup export engine
E. storage pool authority
Answer: AB

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