2013年9月30日星期一

Latest HP HP0-D03 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: HP0-D03
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When creating system utilization reports, which static information does the report header contain?
(Select two.)
A.platform
B.idle power
C.workload description
D.contained in system
E.contained in complex
Answer: AB

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NO.2 An HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure is populated with full-height server blades with default DIP switch
settings on the Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module. Which Virtual Connect Fibre Channel uplinks are
used if the server blade has the Fibre Channel HBA mezzanine card in mezzanine connector 1 or 2?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.2 and 4
Answer: A

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NO.3 You need to compare Scenario reports.Where do you accomplish this from the HP Systems Insight
Manager Menu bar?
A.Optimize --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
B.Reports --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
C.Options --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
D.Tasks & Logs --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about paravirtualization?
A.The guest operating systems run at the standard Ring-0 architectural layer, removing the need for ring
compression.B.The hypervisor resides on the server hardware and the guest operating system is aware it
is running on a virtual machine.
C.The virtualization layer is hosted by the underlying operating system and the applications are controlled
by the hypervisor.
D.Portions of the system hardware are emulated, providing the guest operating system with virtual server
hardware and devices.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What application data can be imported into Capacity Advisor using the Optimize menu? (Select two.)
A.HP Storage Essentials host data
B.HP ProLiant Support Pack (PSP) data
C.HP ProLiant Management Pack (PMP) data
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) data
E.HP OpenView Performance Agent (OVPA) data
Answer: CE

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NO.1 Your customer is looking for a simplified way to handle hardware and software issues
across worldwide IT departments. Which hardware support services should you offer?
A.Global Support Resources
B.Mission Critical and Proactive Services
C.Global Call Management
D.HP Mission Critical Partnership
Answer:C

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NO.2 An enterprise customer is undertaking a new initiative involving floating-point calculations.
The customer needs a solution that enables them to break these operations into smaller tasks
and re-integrated later. Which type of technology would be a good fit for this customer?
A.hard partitions
B.grid computing
C.active/standby clustering
D.workload management
Answer:B

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NO.3 A customer wants to maximize the use of its data center rack space. Which server solution
should you recommend?
A.rack-optimized HP ProLiant DL servers
B.expansion-optimized HP ProLiant ML servers
C.integration-optimized HP Integrity servers
D.high-density-optimized HP BladeSystem servers
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which HP Power and Cooling service helps create an energy-efficient infrastructure?
A.Critical Facilities Consulting
B.Trusted Infrastructure
C.Data Center Management
D.Flexible Computing Services
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which HP support service includes 6-hour Call-to-Repair by default?
A.Proactive 24
B.Support Plus 24
C.Critical Services
D.Proactive Support Plus 24
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which HP initiatives help the customer to deliver faster innovation and improved time to
market? (Select two.)
A.Application Modernization
B.Packaged and Custom Applications
C.SOA Enablement
D.SAP Deployments
E.Line of Business Service
Answer:C E

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NO.7 How much of an increase over standard cooling capacity does the HP Modular Cooling
System provide?
A.1.5x
B.2x
C.3x
D.4x
Answer:C

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NO.8 Your customer wants to use their standard servers and storage systems for a massively
scalable Information Management solution. Which solution addresses this requirement?
A.Oracle RAC 10g
B.NeoView Enterprise Data Warehouse
C.PolyServe Software for Microsoft SQL Server
D.SAP Sideways
Answer:B

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NO.9 Your customer's environment consists of a 300GB Oracle database on a ProLiant DL580
server running Windows Server 2003, connected to an EVA4400 storage solution with an
MSL4048 tape library as backup device. You are asked to design a solution using HP Data
Protector that will eliminate database outages currently required for backups. Which licenses
are necessary to implement this design? (Select two.)
A.Direct Backup
B.Advanced Backup-to-Disk
C.Zero Downtime Backup EVA
D.Business Copy EVA
E.Instant Recovery
Answer:C D

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NO.10 A customer is currently using a SAN data-protection solution. It has 45 heterogeneous
servers, three HP StorageWorks EVA8000 series storage solutions, and an MSL6000 series
SAN tape library. Data backup occurs only once daily after operating hours because of the
limited backup window. Which HP StorageWorks products should you propose to enhance
and optimize their off-site data protection strategy? (Select two.)
A.LTO tape drives
B.Virtual Library System
C.ESL E-Series tape library
D.XP series storage system
Answer:A D

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2013年9月29日星期日

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NO.1 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.2 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in the
computer. What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of
the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the
call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller
asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

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NO.4 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.5 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be
implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this
file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective
security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.7 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.9 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing Windows 2003
machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.12 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.14 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some
kind of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: DE

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NO.17 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.19 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.20 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network and
computers. Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e
which of the following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.21 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If
you have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24,
allowing root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish
this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.22 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all
Start regedit.exe
Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.23 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.24 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the
information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is
the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: ABCD

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NO.25 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: CE

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NO.26 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.27 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of
the following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: ABD

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NO.28 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.29 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to un-archiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.30 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: ISFS
Exam Name: EXIN (Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Why is air-conditioning placed in the server room.?
A. In the server room the air has to be cooled and the heat produced by the equipment has to be
extracted. The air in the room is also dehumidified and filtered.
B. When a company wishes to cool its offices, the server room is the best place. This way, no office space
needs to be sacrificed for such a large piece of equipment.
C. It is not pleasant for the maintenance staff to have to work in a server room that is too warm.
D. Backup tapes are made from thin plastic which cannot withstand high temperatures.
Therefore, if it gets too hot in a server room, they may get damaged.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What physical security measure is necessary to control access to company information?
A. Air-conditioning
B. Username and password
C. The use of break-resistant glass and doors with the right locks, frames and hinges
D. Prohibiting the use of USB sticks
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is an example of a physical security measure?
A. A code of conduct that requires staff to adhere to the clear desk policy, ensuring that
confidential information is not left visibly on the desk at the end of the work day
B. An access control policy with passes that have to be worn visibly
C. The encryption of confidential information
D. Special fire extinguishers with inert gas, such as Argon
Answer: D

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NO.4 Who is authorized to change the classification of a document?
A. The author of the document
B. The administrator of the document
C. The owner of the document
D. The manager of the owner of the document
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your organization has an office with space for 25 workstations. These workstations are all fully
equipped and in use. Due to a reorganization 10 extra workstations are added, 5 of which are used for a
call centre 24 hours per day. Five workstations must always be available. What physical security
measures must be taken in order to ensure this?
A. Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. You would therefore have spare equipment that can
be used to replace any non-functioning equipment.
B. Obtain an extra office and set up 10 workstations. Ensure that there are security personnel both in the
evenings and at night, so that staff can work there safely and securely.
C. Obtain an extra office and connect all 10 new workstations to an emergency power supply and UPS
(Uninterruptible Power Supply). Adjust the access control system to the working hours of the new staff.
Inform the building security personnel that work will also be carried out in the evenings and at night.
D. Obtain an extra office and provide a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) for the five most important
workstations.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work for a large organization. You notice that you have access to confidential information that you
should not be able to access in your position. You report this security incident to the helpdesk. The
incident cycle isinitiated. What are the stages of the security incident cycle?
A. Threat, Damage, Incident, Recovery
B. Threat, Damage, Recovery, Incident
C. Threat, Incident, Damage, Recovery
D. Threat, Recovery, Incident, Damage
Answer: C

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NO.7 Why do organizations have an information security policy?
A. In order to demonstrate the operation of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle within an organization.
B. In order to ensure that staff do not break any laws.
C. In order to give direction to how information security is set up within an organization.
D. In order to ensure that everyone knows who is responsible for carrying out the backup
procedures.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The company Midwest Insurance has taken many measures to protect its information. It uses an
Information Security Management System, the input and output of data in applications is validated,
confidential documents are sent in encrypted form and staff use tokens to access information systems.
Which of these is not a technical measure?
A. Information Security Management System
B. The use of tokens to gain access to information systems
C. Validation of input and output data in applications
D. Encryption of information
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work in the IT department of a medium-sized company. Confidential information has got into the
wrong hands several times. This has hurt the image of the company. You have been asked to propose
organizational security measures for laptops at your company. What is the first step that you should take?
A. Formulate a policy regarding mobile media (PDAs, laptops, smartphones, USB sticks)
B. Appoint security personnel
C. Encrypt the hard drives of laptops and USB sticks
D. Set up an access control policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to
make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read
their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail
facilities be best regulated?
A. Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments
in e-mails
B. Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and
obligations of both the employer and staff are set down
C. Implementing privacy regulations
D. Installing a virus scanner
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-115
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000)
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Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.2 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.3 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.4 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C

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NO.7 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.9 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.10 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MOFF-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework Foundation)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.2 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in
the Plan Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.3 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
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A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to
corporate resources?
Select the best response.
A. VPN-enabled routers
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

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NO.6 On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only
Answer: C

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NO.7 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and
provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, and
protect their investments?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Software Application Support Services
B. Cisco Focused Technical Support Services
C. Cisco Smart Foundation Service
D. Cisco SP Base
E. Cisco SMARTnet Onsite
Answer: C

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NO.9 What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs,
yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Joint Marketing Fund
D. Cisco Discovery
E. Steps to Success
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.11 What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

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NO.14 Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRs
B. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
E. Cisco 7200 Series Routers
F. Cisco 2800 Series ISRs
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience
level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
Select the best response.
A. Solution Expert
B. Quote Builder
C. Sales Accelerator
D. Competitive Edge
E. Cisco Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.19 What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?
Select the best response.
A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classes
B. Live instructor-led, web-based classes
C. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learning
D. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customers
E. Lists of training-partner class offerings
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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